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2016 Postmortem

hedda_foil

(16,375 posts) Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:00 PM Feb 2016

0

Weren't most of the Democratic primaries in '08 winner take alll?

In fact, I seem to remember that Hillary's team thought all the states were winner take all, and calculated the states needed to win incorrectly when Obama started surging. This time around, it looks like all the states are awarding delegates proportionally. When and why did that happen?

5 replies

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Weren't most of the Democratic primaries in '08 winner take alll? (Original Post) hedda_foil Feb 2016 OP

i don't suppose this info is available through google 6chars Feb 2016 #1

Good question. pacalo Feb 2016 #2

Nope, they've been proportiional for decades. MohRokTah Feb 2016 #3

No they were not. Skinner Feb 2016 #4

Thanks, Skinner. hedda_foil Feb 2016 #5

6chars

(3,967 posts)

1. i don't suppose this info is available through google

Reply to hedda_foil (Original post)

Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:05 PM

Feb 2016

and in less time than it took to post the thread...

pacalo

(24,721 posts)

2. Good question.

Reply to hedda_foil (Original post)

Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:06 PM

Feb 2016

MohRokTah

(15,429 posts)

3. Nope, they've been proportiional for decades.

Reply to hedda_foil (Original post)

Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:08 PM

Feb 2016

You must be confusing Democratic primaries for Republican primaries.

Skinner

(63,645 posts)

4. No they were not.

Reply to hedda_foil (Original post)

Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:10 PM

Feb 2016

in 2008 the delegates were awarded proportionally too. The exact formula varies from state to state.

hedda_foil

(16,375 posts)

5. Thanks, Skinner.

Reply to Skinner (Reply #4)

Fri Feb 19, 2016, 04:21 PM

Feb 2016

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