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Eugene

(61,900 posts)
Sun Sep 8, 2013, 01:09 PM Sep 2013

Stonehenge was built on solstice axis, dig confirms

Source: The Guardian

Stonehenge was built on solstice axis, dig confirms

Dalya Alberge
The Guardian, Sunday 8 September 2013 16.46 BST

English Heritage says it has discovered a "missing piece in the jigsaw" in our understanding of Stonehenge, England's greatest prehistoric site. Excavations along the ancient processional route to the monument have confirmed the theory that it was built along an ice age landform that happened to be on the solstice axis.

The Avenue was an earthwork route that extended 1.5 miles from the north-eastern entrance to Wiltshire's standing stones to the River Avon at West Amesbury. Following the closure of the A344 road, which cut across the route, archaeologists have been able to excavate there for the first time.

Just below the tarmac, they have found naturally occurring fissures that once lay between ridges against which prehistoric builders dug ditches to create the Avenue. The ridges were created by Ice Age meltwater that happen to point directly at the mid-winter sunset in one direction and the mid-summer sunrise in the other.

Professor Mike Parker Pearson, a leading expert on Stonehenge, said: "It's hugely significant because it tells us a lot about why Stonehenge was located where it is and why they (prehistoric people) were so interested in the solstices. It's not to do with worshipping the sun, some kind of calendar or astronomical observatory; it's about how this place was special to prehistoric people.

[font size=1]-snip-[/font]

Read more: http://www.theguardian.com/culture/2013/sep/08/stonehenge-ice-age-solstice-axis

54 replies = new reply since forum marked as read
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Stonehenge was built on solstice axis, dig confirms (Original Post) Eugene Sep 2013 OP
Shhh I believe Laochtine Sep 2013 #1
Finally an answer! Small Accumulates Sep 2013 #2
Bwahahahahaha! progressoid Sep 2013 #3
Awe-inspiring! One's spirit soars. n/t Judi Lynn Sep 2013 #4
Brilliant, I literally laughed out loud! You won this thread, SA! Surya Gayatri Sep 2013 #9
Granite? 46 miles from Wales? Coyotl Sep 2013 #12
The Stonehenge site was active for a long time, starting with timbers. hunter Sep 2013 #44
Interpretations are just that, not facts. Coyotl Sep 2013 #47
I hope you're not mistaking me for some kind of new-age interloper... hunter Sep 2013 #48
Knowing the shortest and longest days of the year, can be a powerful tool happyslug Sep 2013 #5
Isn't it amazing that what has been termed in the past as "stone age" cavemen Hestia Sep 2013 #6
Basic engineering is quite simple, also Longitude needs constant time to be effective. happyslug Sep 2013 #7
Engineering an aqueduct may look easy on paper, but without using modern Hestia Sep 2013 #14
Most Aquaducts were and are ground level happyslug Sep 2013 #15
Göbekli Tepe Coyotl Sep 2013 #13
have you seen "the mystery of chaco canyon"? an amazing documentary on this strange question niyad Sep 2013 #16
Venus is important because her path was tracked? aquart Sep 2013 #19
Looking at the stars was popular before the days of TV happyslug Sep 2013 #25
We've lost our way Cartoonist Sep 2013 #8
"The Dark Ages" was to eliminate intellectuals and impose a feudal system based on religion.... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #11
The Dark Ages was a move to strengthen the lower classes and take power from the 1% happyslug Sep 2013 #17
You failed to mention the Church held authority as to who was considered to be "royalty".... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #18
Sure, because nobody with royal blood had ever been executed before. aquart Sep 2013 #21
During the Renaissance such executions were rare happyslug Sep 2013 #26
People were told the richer the king, the better off the kingdom.... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #30
Again a Renaissance concept, we are talking about the Dark Ages. happyslug Sep 2013 #32
No, that "rich king being better for you" idea goes WAY back. Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #34
Yes, you see it is the Ancient World, Ancient Eygpt, Ancient Rome and Ancient Greece etc happyslug Sep 2013 #35
Actually, you are claiming the Dark Ages was only "dark" for the 1%.... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #38
If you read the history, the Church was NOT that independent at that time period happyslug Sep 2013 #39
"the Pope had to be loyal to the the Franks" Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #40
What the POPE said and what the POPE wanted are and were TWO different things happyslug Sep 2013 #41
The Romans originally were after England's tin for bronze production.... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #43
I do not see an anti-intellectual attitude in that time period happyslug Sep 2013 #45
While Europe under Christianity went through the Dark Ages, the Muslim World did NOT... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #46
Egypt were purged by the Romans happyslug Sep 2013 #49
Actually, the final blow to Egypt was when the "mad monks of Nitria" tore Hyapatia to pieces.... Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #50
I see you problem, you are of the Ronald Reagan School of History happyslug Sep 2013 #51
"you get your history from movies." Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #52
I am sorry, movies are a bad source of history happyslug Sep 2013 #53
"I am sorry," Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #54
Sure they had, just not after a trial. Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #27
Actually that is NOT a Dark Age concept, That is a Renaissance and Reformation Concept happyslug Sep 2013 #22
By "elected kings" don't you mean "warrior kings"? If you fought for the church you recieved title. Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #29
The Church was quick to recognize someone rights to land, when he had troops all over it. happyslug Sep 2013 #31
Let's not forget tax collection and "tribute". Spitfire of ATJ Sep 2013 #33
Actually, that skit misses a problem happyslug Sep 2013 #36
1. Use grammar check or a good friend before you post long pieces. aquart Sep 2013 #20
No one likes the Dark Ages, they try to skip from Rome to the Crusades. happyslug Sep 2013 #23
People ignore it because there is so little believable history from it. Records just sucked. aquart Sep 2013 #24
I have tried to understand Feudalism, something that has been under attack for at least 600 years happyslug Sep 2013 #28
What's your view of feudalism? hunter Sep 2013 #37
That is one of the reason you often have to read between the lines happyslug Sep 2013 #42
I only wish to point out a failing in popular English: a jigsaw IS NOT a jigsaw puzzle HereSince1628 Sep 2013 #10
 

Surya Gayatri

(15,445 posts)
9. Brilliant, I literally laughed out loud! You won this thread, SA!
Tue Sep 10, 2013, 06:39 AM
Sep 2013
Two Stone Age-guys wondering what to do
who just said: "Dude, let's build a henge or two!"

hunter

(38,317 posts)
44. The Stonehenge site was active for a long time, starting with timbers.
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 10:51 PM
Sep 2013

The bluestone does have Welsh origin, and may be related to religious sites in Wales but the bluestones themselves at Stonehenge may be glacial erratics found nearer the site.

I think the comparisons to Chaco Canyon are very apt. Stonehenge was a site of religious pilgrimage, much like Chaco Canyon, Mecca, or the Basilica of Our Lady of Guadalupe in Mexico. (Of course nobody wants to hear their "one true" religion has precedents... humans have been doing this sort of thing for a long, long time.)

 

Coyotl

(15,262 posts)
47. Interpretations are just that, not facts.
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 01:20 AM
Sep 2013

There is a joke among us archaeologists, "There are more interpretations than there are archaeologists because everybody thinks they're an archaeologist." Prehistory is nebulous, but that does not stop interpretations were almost nothing is known. People will rant on about "sacrifice" even though they have not one iota of information about the judicial system of a past society, for example, why relying on some Spanish idiot who wrote propaganda about the new world from Madrid.

hunter

(38,317 posts)
48. I hope you're not mistaking me for some kind of new-age interloper...
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 02:15 AM
Sep 2013

... I'm not.

Prehistory is nebulous, yes. And history is even worse since nearly all of that *is* propaganda (sometimes of the most vile sort) and has to be read as such.

I only mean "religion" in a most general way.

Many types of stone were used during the various construction phases of Stonehenge, which is interesting in itself.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
5. Knowing the shortest and longest days of the year, can be a powerful tool
Mon Sep 9, 2013, 04:03 PM
Sep 2013

From that calculation you can estimate when birds will migrate, when the frost will stop (and re-start), what crop is coming into season when etc. You be surprise what occurs on about what date, with the real dating time is from winter and summer solstice.

Errors can creep into any calendar. The Ancient Roman Calendar was so bad, Politicians would add and subtract days for Political reasons (delay an election, speed up an election etc). Egypt seems to have had a calendar that worked, but it was a deep dark secret till Julius Caesar decided to adopt it as the New Calendar for the Roman Empire, but that calendar is a product of the invention of numbers and the modern concept of "Month" that is independent of the moon (Original definition of Month was 28 days, the number of days in a moon's monthly cycle, but even it is not exactly 28 days, but 29.53 days thus 30 days is more accurate but not that much more accurate).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lunar_phase

Once your understand that the Moon Cycle, Sun Cycle and Earth days are NOT compatible and can not be used to determine the start of any year, the start of any year become very IMPORTANT . The Winter and Summer Solstice ARE the start of the year and with that knowledge and the ability to count to 180 gives the person who holds that power the sole ability to ACCURATELY determine when the birds will fly NORTH and SOUTH, when the frosts will end (and begin), when what crop will come into season (and with that knowledge what game will move to what area).

Knowledge is power and being able to predict ACCURATELY the start of summer and the start of winter, once it became known HOW to do it (Someone made that observation on seeing the ice melt) maintaining that KNOWLEDGE became all important. Thus as the ice melted, it remains was probably marked with small rocks. Then the huge wooden temple once the area became warm enough to support trees. Then Stone as the site itself became more and more important.

Thus the real question is NOT why Stonehenge developed but why was it abandoned? From the Ice Age till its abandonment it was the center of not only British Culture but apparently all of North Western Europe (including Modern Northern France and Germany).

Stonehenge was probably abandoned at the start of the Iron Age, as trade routes shifted from the Stone, Copper and Bronze of earlier times to Iron. This shift in trade routes seems to have undone the social structure that supported Stonehenge and lead to its abandonment. While they are indications of later use (Roman coins have been found at Stonehenge), these all seem to be the product of tourists coming to see the ancient ruin, not people actually using Stonehenge as an observatory or even a temple (The Romans were highly anti-Druid, but no destruction of Stonehenge was ordered or recorded during the time period when Rome was destroying every Druid Temple in Britain).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stonehenge#Before_the_monument_.288000_BC_forward.29

 

Hestia

(3,818 posts)
6. Isn't it amazing that what has been termed in the past as "stone age" cavemen
Mon Sep 9, 2013, 07:54 PM
Sep 2013

in the past, have built monoliths worldwide. Just look at the temple complex they have discovered in Turkey - I cannot for the life of me remember the name - 11,000 years old (right now, they still have more to excavate) precisely aligned with solstices, beautiful carvings that have lasted. All by "cavemen."

If I remember correctly, from a non-mainstream history book, Stonehenge & Newgrange both calculated longitude way before 1700s. If you can figure out where, in your part of the world, the sun rises at the winter solstice and rises at the summer solstice and track both, you can figure out your longitude (I think it will take 3 years to track). Won't help at sea but it can be done on land.

I also think (dang, I'm going to have to go back and reread) but Stonehenge & Newgrange also tracks Venus' path. Venus is very accurate at the 8 year cycle - which btw - Venus also tracks a Pentagram path in 8 years, which is why the Pentagram is so important to different historical religions and why She is so important as a Goddess (non-Hellenistic) but truly ancient.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
7. Basic engineering is quite simple, also Longitude needs constant time to be effective.
Mon Sep 9, 2013, 10:47 PM
Sep 2013

People sometimes forget how simple a lot of projects are. For example the Roman Aqueducts.

I once did a water project by hand. I wanted to divert water from a stream down a slow grade. Rather then do the mathematical calculations, what I did was start to dig till the water flowed, then moved to the next section, and dug till the water flowed. I did this for the whole length I wanted the water to go. It was slow, I had to go back and redo parts that had water out, but it can be done in a period of hours by one man or a group of man, just looking at the flow of water.

Most ancient aqueducts were built this way. Slow gradual grade from a high spot to where you wanted the water. No big calculations needed. I suspected even the Ancient Romans did most of their Aqueducts that way (i.e. on the ground with a slow flow). Now, what most people see as ancient Roman Aqueducts are those large tall stone Bridges that carried the water over valleys. Those were built by engineers calculating the height, but I also suspect they were built at a uniform height and then modified for a slow flow. Remember the Ancient Romans did not want any fast running water, just a slow flow. A drop of inches over 100s of feet in length. If you built those stone Aqueduct Bridges at the same height starting as the point where the water flows into it and then use clay to support the lead pipe (Or just clay itself), but make the clay layer less thick as to move along the Aqueduct bridge, you have your inches of drop over 100s of feet of water flow.

The same thing with building anything. You should try to keep everything level, and you need for that is water. A modern Level is water in a frame. The water is marked where it is flat and when it is flat you know you are level. The same thing in ancient times. Water will go to its own level, so a cup, even a tin cap. when it is full will spill over all of its edges at the same time. You can also mark such cup internally to where it is flat (Glass was invented during the time of Ancient Rome, so not used for constructions as far s we can determined). Water is accurate as to level and has been used since ancient times. 99% of all projects done in the world needed a level, but not much else.

Some other construction techniques go back to ancient times. Triangle are the strongest construction form. You see this is today's homes and in Native American Tee Pees (the poles in a Tee Pee formed a circular triangle). The circle takes in the largest amount of room of any shape, thus preferred if it can be built (lowest cost of material, maximum area). Squares are second to circles in ratio of exterior size to interior volume and are easier to construct with simple calculations (i.e. once you out-grown something like a Tee Pee, you need something EASY to build and that is a Square. Solid circular houses tend to be to complex to build for each panel in such a house has to be custom made, unlike a square where more uniform sizes for parts of the walls can be used.

The historical norm for tents is some thing like the Tee Pees, then to something like a "A=Frame" tent (two triangle entrances connected by two long walls), then to a log cabin or house.

Please note this is world wide phenomena, something like Tee Pees were used by some people in Europe as late as the 1800s (mostly northern Europe). We are most familiar with Native Americans who had moved to something like a Log Cabin, at the time of Christopher Columbus. These homes were NOT true Log cabins for Native Americans had no access to iron for axes to cut down such trees. Native Americans relied on brute strength or fire to get the required amount of trees for their homes. It was the plains Indians that reverted to the Tee Pee when their adopted the horse, but only in the summer, in winter their wintered in traditional Native American Wigwams or similar Native American housing.

Native American Housing:
http://www.native-languages.org/houses.htm

I bring up Tee Pees for it is a very effective housing for a tent. Requires just the use of Blankets and long but thin poles. AS people developed they moved from Tee Pees to better more permanent homes, but most of the basic techniques, such as Triangles provide the greatest strength, Circles encloses the most areas, but squares are the easiest to build with standards parts remain the same (along with Water being the best way to determine level, and once something is level you can built bigger and bigger within limits).

Latitude

Latitude was known in ancient times, all latitude is how far north or south you are. By calculating the height of the Sun (or of the north star) you can calculate latitude anywhere. It was the loss of the North Star as you neared the Equator that prevented European Sailors to go further south then the Equator. Looking for a solution Sailors discovered the "Southern Cross" four stars that rotates ROUND about where the South Pol is. The Southern Cross then replaced the North Star in navigation south of the Equator among Western Sailors (there is some indications that natives had done the same for centuries, but that is another story):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crux

Longitude can be fixed anywhere in the world, by just calling one spot Zero. How far away from that spot can be determined by watching the sun at noon. When the sun peaks you set that at noon, and then if you had a clock that could keep its time you look at the difference in time and could calculate how far east or west you were.

One thing the ancient world did was calculate the width of the Planet earth. Around 240 BC Eratosthenes heard about a well that on the first day of summer you could see straight down to the bottom of the well. A man living in Alexandria then measured how far the sun was deflected in Alexandria on the same day. Eratosthenes also knew the distance between the two spots and assumed that they were directly north and south of each other. If you remember your high school geometry, he had angle, side, angle of a Triangle. 90 Degrees in the Well. 1/50th of a circle (7°12&quot at Alexandria, and a distance of 5000 "Stadia" (Egyptian Stadia is 157.7 meters).

Using 1/50th of a circle (his measurement of the sun shadow on the first day of Summer in Alexandria) AND that 1/50th of a circle equal 5000 stadia. 1/50th of a circle equal 7.2 degrees. Thus you have 5000 Stadia for every 7.2 degree, or 694.4444 Stadia per degree (5000 stadia divided by 7.2 degrees). Eratosthenes rounded 694,444 to 700 Stadia per degree and multiplied that by 360 degrees in a circle, or 252000 Stadia for the circumference of the world. if we assume he was using Eyptian Stadia (157,7 Meters) that is 1.6% off the actual circumference of the world.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eratosthenes

Paper on ancient calculations of the Circumferences of the Earth (and that it may predate the Classical Greeks, having been determined by Egyptians by at least 1080 BC).
http://www.metrum.org/measures/measurements.htm

Other Ancient measrurements (Aristotle rejected all of them as being inaccurate, Plato gave the largest)
http://www.metrum.org/measures/measurements.htm

Around 160 AD Ptolemy of Alexandria did his calculations of the circumference of the earth, his geography was actual more details then Eratosthenes but based on bad calculations (But the best know, thus popular long after it was determined the actual details were wrong, Thus Christopher Columbus used Ptolemy of Alexandria while everyone else went by Eratosthenes except those who followed Aristotle who had rejected the world concept that you could determine the size of the earth with any degree of accuracy).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ptolemy

IT is time for me to go to bed, I am rambling on and on. The above needs to be rewritten but I do not have the time but I also believe something along these lines need to be posted. It is a bad post, but I also believe it is a post that is needed so I am posting it and stopping right now before I dig this ditch to much further.

Remember the rule, if you find yourself in a hole, stop digging and that is what I am doing, Good Night.

 

Hestia

(3,818 posts)
14. Engineering an aqueduct may look easy on paper, but without using modern
Wed Sep 11, 2013, 06:27 PM
Sep 2013

surveying tools, precisely build an aqueduct 60 miles long, getting the gradient correct, and connect point A to point B with a error of +/- 1/32 of an inch.

Why do you say they only needed a trickle of water? They had fountains, baths, drinking water and toilets that used running water. A mere trickle won't serve the needs of over 1 million people.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
15. Most Aquaducts were and are ground level
Wed Sep 11, 2013, 10:55 PM
Sep 2013

The oldest Roman Aqueduct is actually underground and still in use. Using ground and water flow is sufficient to determine drop. You do NOT need to do any math is such a simple system. Enlarging the system only require a deeper ditch and more water from the source.

Now you do need to know extensive math and calculations when building the stone structures most people think of when you think of Aqueducts. I even mentioned that. and then pointed out most such structures were uniform height and the water flow adjusted at the top.

Plumb bobs

When these routes were surveyed, all they had was basically a stick of a set height and a plumb bob. The Plumb bob could be attached to a line and when the other side of the line caused the plumb bob to be at a notch in the center of the base, the line was level. Very simple, very ancient, very accurate.

Now a modern water level is more accurate, for a modern level has its water encased in a sealed tube with one air bubble. When the air bubble inside is between the two marks on the bubble. Very accurate, but only really needed is you want to build over hundreds of miles with curves. The Aqueducts tended to avoid curves (They had them, but it was avoided if it could be done).

A plumb bob is still used, through it is considered more fashionable to used more modern methods (i.e. Modern levels tend to be more accurate, but in most construction other errors exceed the greater accuracy of modern equipment over Plumb bobs). A plumb bob is a simple device, it is generally attached to a flat top (to attach to a line) and triangle bottom. A weight attached to the middle of the top by a short string. When the string meet the mark at the bottom of the device, you knew you were level. Very simple, very effective and accurate:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Plumb_bob

Here is a drawing on the evolution of the Dioptra, the one further to the left is a Plumb Bob, the other two are Dioptra, used mostly in construction. No Records of them in Rome, but were known to the Greeks. This may be simply the result that they had become so common, no one wanted to waste parchment (Which was expensive) on writing about them. An alternative answer was the Romans did not think it was that much of an improvement over the Plumb bob, something the builders of the great Cathentials during the Middle Ages would have agreed with.



Variation of the Plumb Bob was used through out history, the Ancient Greeks used the Dioptra:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dioptra

Another Greek variation of the Plumb Bob, The Groma:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Groma_surveying

More on Roman Engineering:

http://www.surveyhistory.org/ferris_state_university1.htm

In many ways, the key to Roman Engineering was getting the people together to do the work NOT in the calculations.

On the other hand, with a line and a plumb bob you could survey a flat route with ease, and whenever you wanted a drop, drop the line. If you wanted a drop off 1 inch every 100 feet, every 100 feet you move the line down one inch. When the actual construction was done, the workers using water would make the final adjustment.

Lead pipes

As to fountains within the City of Rome. That is based on the concept that water will find its own level. Thus if the water flowing into Rome is at a higher attitude then any fountain or other water source in Rome (or any other city) AND the flowing into a system that is sealed (i.e. enclosed pipes NOT open water ways, the Aqueducts were mostly open water ways, except when it was decided to use pipes). Thus you do not have to known how low or high the pipe is, just that it is below the intake to the water system as a whole. Modern plumbing follows the same rule.

Pipes, made of lead, were extensive in Rome itself AND on various Aqueducts when it was determined the best way to transport the water was down one mountainside, along the valley in a sealed pipe made of lead, then up another Mountain. In such situations all you had to do was make sure the pipe was SEALED and the end closer to Rome was lower then the end further from Rome (at one time this extensive use of lead was blamed for Rome going "Mad" and leading to its decline, but the water in that part of Italy is extremely "Hard" and as such pick up little lead as it flows through the Roman Pipes).

http://penelope.uchicago.edu/~grout/encyclopaedia_romana/wine/leadpoisoning.html

Thus, you do not need extensive calculations (There is some questions if the Roman could do such calculations, Roman roads were known to go in straight line ONLY, for that is easy to calculate. Any turns were 90 degrees even in hilly Italy. The Aqueducts structures we know of also tend to be straight lines EXCEPT when it comes to the parts on the ground (Which indicates the Romans used flow of water method for the ground based part of the Aqueducts, for flow of water could be adjusted for curves).

Thus my point, you do not need much calculations to make an Aqueduct. By its nature an Aqueduct is a simple device to carry water.

niyad

(113,344 posts)
16. have you seen "the mystery of chaco canyon"? an amazing documentary on this strange question
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 12:16 AM
Sep 2013

mark in our history:

The Mystery of Chaco Canyon

The Mystery of Chaco Canyon examines the deep enigmas presented by the massive prehistoric remains found in Chaco Canyon in northwestern New Mexico. It is the summation of 20 years of research. The film reveals that between 850 and 1150 AD, the Chacoan people designed and constructed massive ceremonial buildings in a complex celestial pattern throughout a vast desert region. Aerial and time lapse footage, computer modeling, and interviews with scholars show how the Chacoan culture designed, oriented and located its major buildings in relationship to the sun and moon. Pueblo Indians, descendants of the Chacoan people, regard Chaco as a place where their ancestors lived in a sacred past. Pueblo leaders speak of the significance of Chaco to the Pueblo world today.

The film challenges the notion that Chaco Canyon was primarily a trade and redistribution center. Rather it argues that it was a center of astronomy and cosmology and that a primary purpose for the construction of the elaborate Chacoan buildings and certain roads was to express astronomical interests and to be integral parts of a celestial patterning.

While the Chacoans left no written text to help us to understand their culture, their thoughts are preserved in the language of their architecture, roads and light markings. Landscape, directions, sun and moon, and movement of shadow and light were the materials used by the Chacoan architects and builders to express their knowledge of an order in the universe.


http://documentarystorm.com/the-mystery-of-chaco-canyon/

http://www.solsticeproject.org/films.html

aquart

(69,014 posts)
19. Venus is important because her path was tracked?
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 07:55 AM
Sep 2013

The pentagram is important because Venus tracked a pentagram in 8 years? Why does tracking a pentagram make Venus an important deity? Cute design worship?

Why would anyone worship that little, innocuous dimple on the cheek of night?

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
25. Looking at the stars was popular before the days of TV
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 10:15 AM
Sep 2013

Last edited Thu Sep 12, 2013, 11:21 AM - Edit history (2)

Star watching is believe to have started with Shepherds watching their herds at night. Lacking anything better to do, you talked to other shepherds where the stars were that night. The movement of the Planets were seen to vary when compared to the other "Stars" (in ancient times the word "Star" could mean anything seen in the sky, thus the argument that the alignment of the Planets were the "Star" of Bethlehem mentioned in the Bible).

http://newsinfo.iu.edu/news/page/normal/1203.html

The above paper cites several such alignments for the Star of Bethlehem, but only later on mentions that there is growing scholarship that Herod died in 1 AD not 4 BC (Either date in possible, the records of his death is unclear).

Back to Venus. These Shepherds (and sailors, another group of men on watch during the night) saw the changes as the seasons changed. Why the stars "Moved" they did not know, but made up stories about why, stories relying on the best evidence they had, what they saw in the Sky.

From these observations the various Stars (i.e. the Planets) were given names of the Various Gods and an effort was made to make the stories of the Gods AND what their Planet did match up. If is unclear how what gods were tied in with what Planet, but most societies did it, again remember this is all pre-TV and pre-Street lights thus the stars were quite bright. Lack of anything better to discuss the Stars became a safe topic to talk about and this spread as Civilization spread and the need to have increase safe topics to talk about increased along with the population.

Thus by the time we have writing, these Stars and the gods associated with them were already quite old, People knew the movement of such stars, and people studies such stars to try to determine the will of the gods. Thus Venus became known for a Pentagram for that is what the Planet Venus does. Why the goddess Venus does this was unknown, but explanations were made. That Venus was associated with the raising and setting of the sun made it important, seeing Venus meant your watch at night was almost over. That seems to be why Venus became so important in the days before watches.

Worse, Venus was considered to be two different planets for Centuries, one at sunset, the other as sun raise.

Venus was known to ancient civilizations both as the "morning star" and as the "evening star", names that reflect the early understanding that these were two separate objects. The Venus tablet of Ammisaduqa, dated 1581 BCE, shows the Babylonians understood the two were a single object, referred to in the tablet as the "bright queen of the sky", and could support this view with detailed observations.The Greeks thought of the two as separate stars, Phosphorus and Hesperus, until the time of Pythagoras in the sixth century BC. The Romans designated the morning aspect of Venus as Lucifer, literally "Light-Bringer", and the evening aspect as Vesper.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Venus#Early_studies

Thus the importance of Venus in the days before Watches was it showed that sunrise was NOT far off. That is important to people who want to start moving as soon as it is daylight (I.e. start packing with Venus, ready to move when Dawn breaks). It is important also to people during various night watches, it means their watch is almost over. Thus Venus was one of the more important "Stars" in the heavens for its rise indicated something useful to people who looked for it.

Cartoonist

(7,317 posts)
8. We've lost our way
Tue Sep 10, 2013, 01:48 AM
Sep 2013

I blame religion, but that upsets some people here. Still, I think it is sad that every child in America knows when Christmas is but not many can even tell you what a solstice is, let alone when they occur. A real event is little known, while a completely arbitrary and made up date is universally known.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
11. "The Dark Ages" was to eliminate intellectuals and impose a feudal system based on religion....
Wed Sep 11, 2013, 10:24 AM
Sep 2013

Much like today...

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
17. The Dark Ages was a move to strengthen the lower classes and take power from the 1%
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 02:59 AM
Sep 2013

You must understand how the late Roman Empire was run. Everyone within the Empire had been declared a citizen in 212 AD, but by then the rights of a Citizen had declined. In 100 BC, if you were a Roman Citizen, you could not be whipped, but 212 AD you could be,

This decline in Human Rights for anyone but the top 1% ran from the time of the Second Punic War (ended 202 BC) till the Fall of the Empire in the West (c450 AD). Attempts were made to address it but those attempts all ended in failure.

With the near collapse of the Roman Empire in the Third Century, the old policy of Rome being a military dictatorship was no longer possible. Roman needed support of its people, the question was how to get it and that included being able to get messages to the people and to understand what the people what an that included the 99%.

The chief reason Christianity was adopted as the State Religion is that it was the only religion that had a structure similar to the Roman Empire. The Church had early on copied the Roman Imperial structure for its own structure, and it was the only organization that could reach most of the peasants of the Empire.

The Church also had one thing the Imperial Structure did not have. The Church had insisted on Churches able to fit all members, thus they had one more then one Pagan 1% call "Barns". The advantages of these "Barns" was they could be used to inform ALL OF the people what was going on and what was expected of them. This was the main purpose of the Church in all nations till the 1800s. The reason was there was nothing else that could spread out news, till the invention of pulp paper in 1801, and the high speed press around 1850, which permitted what we call "newspapers" to spread news.

Anyway, as Rome became more and more Christian, it continued on its poor policy to the poor. The 1% refused to give up their land or their slaves. In 450 AD a true disaster hit the Empire, the Vandals took Carthage and thus divided the Mediterranean sea in half. This destroyed most East-West Trade and with it most trade within the Empire. Please note the Vandals walked into Carthage while most of its Citizens were attending the Games. Again it was the Vandals being invited in by some Roman Elite to put down some of the local peasants who were in revolt. The Vandals would stay till they embraced Christianity (the Vandals was one of the few invaders who were not already Christians when they crossed into the Roman Empire) AND STARTED TO DO LAND REFORM BY TAKING LAND FROM THE ROMAN ELITE.

Now, in the Eastern Empire, given that it was the poorest area when it came to farming, had never adopted the large estates so common in the Roman Empire areas of Italy, Gaul, Spain, Africa (in Roman Days that means present day Tunisia) and Egypt. The Capital of the Eastern Empire, Constantinople, was between Asia Minor and what use to be called Yugoslavia, both areas were the major recruiting areas for the Roman Army. Thus, the Eastern Empire survived for it did not have to worry about giving land back to the 1% once it also lost Egypt to the Arab conquest in the 600s.

On the other hand, the Western Empire, was filled with these large estate, owned by people who did not want to give up their land nor their slaves, even if that was required to defeat any invaders. In fact, when these invaders invaded, most were already Christian and thus the Roman Peasants joined them for being Christian was more important then being what ever Germanic Tribe they were or if they were Roman Citizens. When the Goths invaded Italy in 410, they left Italy with more people then they invaded Italy with, and the reason was so many Romans joined them.

In fact, except for the Goths and the Vandals, the Western Roman Empire defeated every invading Germanic Invader, and then settled them in areas where Roman Peasants were in full revolt (When the Saxons and Angles invaded present day England, British 1% wanted help, the Western Empire said no, but then said they could move to present day Brittany and put down the massive peasant revolt doing on in Brittany in the mid 400s, these British 1%ers agreed and moved to present day Brittany).

The Germanic Invaders, once settled down within the Western Empire, quickly found out they were viewed by the Roman 1% just like the rest of the Roman Peasants, but they had the ability to change that and by the early 500s were doing so. It appears to be Church driven, but it was a call back to the Gracchi of the late republic, land reform, i.e. giving land to the peasants and away from the Roman 1%.

To these movements on Land Reform, the Eastern Empire reacted with an invasion of Carthage in the 520s and then Italy in the 530s. The Roman 1% elite hated the loss of all of their land and wealth and demand that the Eastern Empire invade. The Emperor Justinian complied, ending up with 10 years of war and Italy losing 90% of its population (and it is this serious of war that leads to Rome's population dropping to Zero, Rome's population seems to have stayed quite high, by some estimates still the largest city in the world at the start of these Italian Wars).

Anyway, the Roman Elite opposed the Germanic Tribes Land reforms, but also did not want to pay for the Eastern Army to invade and reestablish the Empire. Thus the Eastern Empire went broke taking Carthage, Italy and Southern Spain. Worse, once these areas returned to Roman Rule, the Empire could not divide up the country and spread out the land to pay its debts. The reason was the Roman elite followed the Roman Army and declared what had been they lands they lands and thus NOT subject to any payment to pay for the war (a similar situation occurred during the Vietnam War, US troops would clear out a area of Viet Cong, then the Army of South Vietnam would move in and force the peasants to pay their rents their owned to the 1% of South Vietnam, this had the effect of making such peasants even more pro Viet Cong, for the Viet Cong demanded less).

The Germanic invaders, when defending themselves from such an invasion, always took the position they could divide up the land among the people who supported them, including the Roman Peasants. Thus the invaders could raise troops and supply their troops with a promise of land, while the Roman Army could not rely on the same method of payment. Worse, the Roman Peasants in Italy, Carthage and Spain ended up backing the Barbarians for their right to use their land was derived from the Barbarians not the Roman invaders.

Yes, you had Roman peasants fighting along Barbarian "invaders" against Roman Imperial Troops (and all of them Christians).

With the death of Justinian the Eastern Empire had to pull back. It had run out of money and unwilling to give land to the Roman Peasants and thus had no way to raise the troops needed to retake the Western Empire. The Lombards invaded Italy in the 570s (A pagan invader, who soon adopted Catholicism but continue to fight the Eastern Empire till the Eastern Empire had lost all of Italy in the 900s). The Lombards were another people that allocated land to the peasants.

Now, how the Barbarians allocated lands to the Peasants gives raise to us calling them Feudal, and using the term as a dirty word. To understand why it was an improvement and why we hold Feudalism as being bad, we have to understand how these Estate were run by the Roman 1%. The Roman 1% ran those lands like a modern corporation, they owned it, they were entitled to any and all profits and they had the right to get rid of any or all workers if that benefited them. The Peasants on the estate could not leave without permission of the Roman Owner, but the Roman owner could kick him or her out at any time for any or no reason.

On the other hand the Barbarians tended to take a more "Feudal" view over control of an estate. The Barbarian owner had the right to sell the estate, break it up etc, but the peasants were NOT his to sell. Instead of being "Slaves" the peasants were "Serfs". As a Serf the peasant had certain rights, including the right to stay on the land, to stay in his or her house even of the Barbarian owner wanted him out. The relationship was less like a modern Employee with his Employer and more like an Army Officer and his Troops. The troops had to do certain things, but if they did it, they were entitled to certain rights. Thus the Barbarian owner could NOT sell his Serfs, if the land was sold the Serf went with it and the new owner rights were still subject to the right of the serf.

The system adopted by the Germanic Tribe, and protected by the Christian Church for over 1000 years was Feudalism. It gave rights to land to the peasants subject to what the larger society needed (i.e. Troops, the larger Barbarian Estate Owners tend to be the troops the Kings of the Dark Ages and Middles Ages relied on to fight its wars, if they did not fight, they lost they land, but the peasants working the land retain they rights to the same piece of land. It was a good way to raise troops, protect the rights of peasants in a time period of very little cash or trade.

Side-note:

Starting in the 1600s this mutual relationship came under attack for due to industrialization a lot of large owners of property wanted to kick off their peasants and convert the land to other uses. The classic case is in Scotland. The Clan Chieftains starting in the 1600s wanted to convert what had been farm and highland cattle country to sheep. Their peasants objected to this, sometimes with violence but always saying you are taking our rights to the land away. The British government supported the Chieftains and slowly converted the Scottish Highlands from a high population farm and cattle area to one of low population and a lot of sheep.

This conversion increased in the 1700s and again after 1815, When the British Recruiters went to the Highlands to recruit for the Crimea war in 1852, they were meet with "Baaa" over and over again. When England was at war, England wanted Highland men, but at peace England wanted Highland Sheep.

I bring the highlands and sheep up to show that it is only in the last 400 years as the 1% became more and more like the 1% of Roman times that Feudalism became a bad thing. Yes Feudalism had problems but so do modern Capitalism as shown by the reaction to the 1852 Crimea War recruiters.

As to intellectual development, that was a product of the Roman Elite, the 1%. It declined for the simple reason with the drop in trade and agriculture output (due to what is now called the Dark Age Cold Period) something had to give, and the peasants could not give any more given their poor situation at the height of the Roman Empire. Thus the system collapsed for that was the only way to get rid of the Roman Elite.

One of the facts that shows the above very well, is that no family in Europe and trace they family back, in the male line, to before the ninth century. The Barbarian invasions of the 500 and 600s had started to movement to Feudalism but some Roman Elite held on to their lands well into the Ninth century. At that time period Western Europe came under three attacks, the North-men from Scandinavia, the Arabs from North Africa and the Magyars from present day Hungary. All tended to raid not stay. The old Roman Elite would leave when they invaded and return when they left and then demand what the peasants was expected to pay them.

This was the last Straw in most of Western Europe. The Byzantine Empire and replaced its Mercenary Army with a Feudal Militia Cavalry in the early 600s. This was first done in reaction to the cost incurred by Justinian in his wars, then the wars with Persian where Persia was able to invade the Empire enough to get to the Mediterranean (For the First time since Alexander the Great 900 years earlier) and to besiege Constantinople itself then the Arab invasion that followed the Byzantine defeat of the Persians.

As I pointed out above, parts of the Western Empire had done something like what the Byzantine Empire when the Byzantine Empire pulled out of Western Europe to fight the Persians. With these three constant invasions all at the same time, the Ottos, the Western Emperors that succeeded Charlemagne and his decedents expanded the policy to clearly include if the "owner"did not defend his land and his serfs, the Emperor would find someone who would.

This quickly spread to the rest of Western Europe and quickly lead to the defeat of all three raiders by simply making sure the raids they did were no longer profitable (No quick grab and run, the local leaders would lead some sort of fight and that fight would be enough to take out any profit from the raid).

Notice this also strengthen the Peasants, for Feudalism was adopted to protect the Peasants at the cost of the 1%. Under Feudalism if you were a member of the 1% you had to protect the 99%. If you failed to do so, you lost your position within the 1%. This is what happened when the Germanic Invaders of the 400s, the Slavic Invaders of the 500s and 600s, and even the Arabs of the 600s.

Thus the Dark Ages were a good time for the 99% compared to the Late Roman Republic and Empire. Yes, intellectual arguments ended, but in favor of more basic changes such as the introduction of Chinese Iron Making (much more efficient then how the Romans and Greeks made iron and steel), the Horse shoe, the Horse Collar (introduced from China), the Stirrup (appears to be a Byzantine invention), the heavy iron plow (Developed in Asia Minor, but adopted by the Slavs and spread with them in the 600s) and Hay (Fodder was just not kept till the Dark Ages and the adoption of the Horse collar).

The Waterwheel finally reached Western Europe and someone took the idea of ball bearings and applied them to wagons (Both had been known to Romans, but appears NOT to have been taught or used by Roman Peasants, it was the Dark Ages where peasants started to used them and vastly improved land transportation).

Present theory is that the above inventions, included the ball bearing where spread by Christian Priests, but since spreading such information was NOT their primary job, unreported. The big exception to this is the heavy Iron Plow. While Priests my have introduced it to the Slavs from Asia Minor, use of the Iron Plow spread with the Slavic invasions of 600-800 AD. The Heavy Plow went at the pace of the Slavic Invasions, the other items tend to move with it but also independent of it.

Just a comment, the Dark Ages is more an age of getting things to the peasants so they could live better, then the earlier Roman Period when the tread was what was best for the Roman 1%.

A more accurate statement would be Feudalism was the reaction and the result of what is being tried today, a rejection of what is "Norm" today in favor of a system that favors the 99%

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
18. You failed to mention the Church held authority as to who was considered to be "royalty"....
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 03:21 AM
Sep 2013

Often, these were the already wealthy landowners. It was a sweet deal. You had three basic classes. The Lords who actually believed they were destined to rule by God. The warrior class to fight for them. And then the masses who were expected to live out their lives in servitude to their "betters".

This is why when Charles I was executed it threw every blue blood into a panic. Damn that Magna Carta anyway.

aquart

(69,014 posts)
21. Sure, because nobody with royal blood had ever been executed before.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 08:13 AM
Sep 2013

I.. I.. I am damn near speechless with the loose and oh so fragile grasp of history on DU.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
26. During the Renaissance such executions were rare
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 11:34 AM
Sep 2013

Last edited Thu Sep 12, 2013, 02:38 PM - Edit history (1)

Thus the shock over the Execution of Charles I in 1640, Kings were killed, murdered assassinated, died in battle (often killed by one of their own men, loyalty was not always what it was cracked up to be) BUT EXECUTED FOR CRIMES, was unheard of. Even Pizarro was reprimanded for killing the Inca by the Spanish Monarch (While the Monarch was taking in his fifth of the takings). Cortes avoided the issue by saying the Mexican people killed the Head of the Aztecs.

While executing a King was viewed as against international law during the High Middle Ages and the Renaissance, that was NOT the case in the Dark Ages. Kings killed kings that fell into their hands all the time during the Dark Ages and made no bones that it was a simple execution NOT some "unfortunate accident". Given that the modern concept of Royalty and Nobility did not yet exist, and the older concept of being a Roman had fallen out of fashion (and the protection of being a Roman had disappeared in the late Empire) this is understandable. Thus you have many executions of kings during the Dark Ages that were clearly called Executions.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
30. People were told the richer the king, the better off the kingdom....
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 01:14 PM
Sep 2013

It was the original "trickle down".

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
35. Yes, you see it is the Ancient World, Ancient Eygpt, Ancient Rome and Ancient Greece etc
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 03:02 PM
Sep 2013

I am to much defending the Dark Ages, where that concept was still alive, but at one of its lowest level of acceptance.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
38. Actually, you are claiming the Dark Ages was only "dark" for the 1%....
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 03:54 PM
Sep 2013

I disagree. The "Dark Ages" was imposed BY the 1% who ran the Church to eradicate intellectualism amongst the masses.

An appropriate bumper sticker of the time would have been, "Si vos can lego is , servo is ut vestri".

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
39. If you read the history, the Church was NOT that independent at that time period
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 11:38 AM
Sep 2013

Even in the West the Church came under the authority of the Emperor sitting in Constantinople. Even the Pope, who was elected by the people of Rome, had to approved by the Emperor till about 750 AD (When Pepin sent his army into Italy, defeated the Lombards and gave the Vatican States to the Papacy, which was the time the Pope changed his allegiance from Constantinople to the Franks.

Constantinople (which controlled Southern Italy) and the remains of the Frankish and Lombardic States argued over who was to rule Italy and the Pope maneuver between the three to give himself independence. Under Pepin and his son Charlemagne and Grandson Leo, the Pope had to be loyal to the the Franks. When Leo's sons divided up the Western Empire, then and only then could the Pope and the Church be independent of secular powers, mostly by playing the four (the three sons of Leo and Constantinople) against each other. Constantinople was replaced by the Normans around 1000, when the Normans took Southern Italy from Constantinople, but the infighting continued.

Thus till the problems caused by the Magyar, Arabic and Northmen Invasions of the 800s, the rulers of these four kingdoms were in charge NOT the church,

Now the Church worked with these four kingdoms (And how they divided up afterward) but it was not till after 1000 AD that the Church could be viewed as free from Secular Control (and then we are getting into the High Middle Ages not the Dark Ages).

It was a very flexible time, things changed year to year, much more then even today. Heavy Armor Cavalry was the ideal force, but bow and arrow men were in demand, For example Constantinople started to used Northmen in their army around 800 for they needed bowmen for their prior source of bowmen, the Steppes of modern Russia seems to have dried up as the Vikings took over the rivers of Russia (And as Russia and the Ukraine embraced the heavy plow and the area became an area of farmers NOT herders).

This is typical of the Dark Ages, what is an area filled by Turkic herders is filled with Slavic farmers a 100 years later. Constantinople was feed by Egyptian Grain prior to the Arab Conquest, but afterward it was Grain from the Ukraine. Charlemagne's Empire breaks up into three parts, those parts later became France, Germany and what was called the "Middle Kingdom" of Italy, Switzerland, both sides of the Rhine, the the Low Countries. Then 100 years later the German Kingdom and the Middle Kingdom become one, the Holy Roman Empire and the Otto (but then we are getting into the High Middle Ages again). Earlier the Goths had France and Spain, then lost France to the Franks and Spain to the Moslems (Then the Goths started to re-take Spain almost County by County but again that continued into the High Middle Ages).

Some aspects of the Dark Ages lasted till recently, for example as late as 1800, the Majority to people in France did NOT speak French. Provance was way more popular in Southern France, German along the Rhine and Celtic in Brittany. This was even more true in the Dark Ages. In England during the Reformation Cromwell Revolted against the English imposed on them in the Anglican Common Books of Pray, they preferred Latin if a foreign tongue was to be imposed on them (Cromwell was a Celtic Speaking part of England).

The Germans had been pushed West of the Elbe by the Slavs by 900, then the Germans reversed the movement and made the Area of what had been East Germany, German along with Silesia (East Prussia was a Middle Age expansion of German but it started in the Dark Ages). The Vikings moved into Normandy in France (and from they back into England) and into Southern Italy in the 900. The Viking has moved into England in the 800s but pushed out by the 900s. Britain had no Germanic Tribes within its borders around 400 AD, but within a 100 years, the Utes, Anges and Saxons had all invaded (along with a small Slavic tribe that brought the heavy plow with them). The conquest of England was slow, stopped well before taking Wales or Cromwell but the scale was intense. As one French Writer wrote, in the Rest of the Former Roman Empire you can still see many Roman political lines still in use, you see none in England. What you see are some long forgotten truce line between the various Warring states that have survived as county and parish borders. No sign of Roman rule survived except for some cities and roads (and many of those may be pre-Roman). Hadrian Wall was ignored for centuries, it became the border between Scotland and England more by the fact that it is located as the narrowest point between both countries then that the Roman Built a wall there.

With all this flexibility, the lower classes had a say. they could always defect to the other side. In England this seems to have been the case. The Old Roman Elite retreated to traditional Hill Top Forts, people who have looked at these hill top forts report a distinct difference between pre and post Roman Hill Top Forts. Pre-Roman were larger and clearly designed to take in all of the people of the area. Post Roman Hill top Forts are designed only for the ruling elite and their troops. the peasants were on they own (and it appears most Peasants then defected to the Saxons for the Saxons understood they needed them to raise the food for their elite and troops). Thus the push westward of the Saxons seems to be driven more and more by massive peasants defections till the 1% either died out or accepted that they had to work with peasants to protect what they still had. This is believe to be how the Story of Arthur began, someone (whose name is forgotten, but later given the name Arthur) seems to have stopped the Saxon onslaught for about a generation, then the onslaught resumed, but by then not only had the Saxons started to break up, so did the Britons. This left England a serious of small Kingdoms, that they would remain till the Viking Conquest of 800 and the reversal of that Conquest by Alfred the Great (who unified England for the first time as an ENGLISH country, as opposed to a united British Country of the late Roman Period).

This movement of people is the big things during the Dark Ages, something really missing since then (With the exception of the American West AND the German move East after 900 AD). This movement permitted the lower classes to move to where they were given the most rights. Once this movement of people stopped, then you see the 1% take back over and assert their position, but that is from the 900s onward as the Viking, Magyars and Arab attacks are defeated and Western Europe booms and become wealthy enough to go on the offensive itself in the form of the Crusades.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
40. "the Pope had to be loyal to the the Franks"
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 01:16 PM
Sep 2013

The Pope appointed the King of France the title of "The Holy Roman Emperor" to battle the Muslims who owned Spain at the time.

What's really funny is when FOX "News" declared not too long ago the history of Europe was of white peace and it's only when the races mix that you have conflict.

BTW: Hadrian's Wall may not look like much today but at one time it was taller (A lot of it is partly buried or scavaged) and was quite an obstacle as there was once a deep ditch filled with spikes.



This was when the Romans decided to stop expanding and start protecting their borders. They were never able to defeat the Scots.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
41. What the POPE said and what the POPE wanted are and were TWO different things
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 06:09 PM
Sep 2013
Popes are Politicans

And that can be said of ANY Politician. "Oh Emperor Charlemagne go fight the Moslems in Spain, but keep your troops near Rome in case the Eastern Emperor decides to March North from Naples, and to keep the Lombards to busy fighting your troops they can not combine with the Eastern Emperor's army and take Rome".

i.e. " Go fight the Moslems if you want to, but first make sure I am safe in Rome from my Enemies, the Lombards and the Greeks".

Hadrian's Wall

As to Hadrian's wall, more recent research have indicated that if there were no written records that it was built by the Romans, it would appear to be better for defense against an attack on the Picts (who then controlled what is today Scotland) then an attack from the South. There found more anti-personal weapons (devices to interfere with someone getting close to the Wall) SOUTH of the Wall then NORTH of the Wall. These researchers made the comment it looked like Hadrian's wall was built to prevent people from going NORTH, not to prevent people from going SOUTH.

Then someone compared it to the Berlin Wall (Especially the Berlin's Wall more rural parts), and that comparison was a better fit, then a wall to keep someone out. In simple terms Hadrian's wall was more to keep people IN Roman Britain then to keep people out.

One thing you must remember, Britain was marginal farm land for Mediterranean farming methods (The method known to the Romans). Given the poor amount of iron due to the poor (compared to the Chinese of the same time period) iron making techniques it was hard to adopt any other type of farming prior to the introduction of the Chinese Iron making techniques (from about 550 onward, and that is tied in with the expansion of the Slavs). Thus Britain had some farming done (not much given the main tools were of wood and maybe bronze) but mostly cattle. AS you go north, what farming that can be done, became harder and harder.

The Wall may have been built for it was decided it was cheaper to feed men on the wall, given the cost of shipping grain, then sending in troops into the Scotland (and the cost of getting food to them in Scotland). Remember's Napoleon's famous comment "An Army moves on its Stomach", that is true today and in the time of the Roman Empire. No food, no army.

In fact this may be the best explanation one the lesser known Antonine Wall. The Antonine Wall was built by Hadrian's successor further up the island, but then abandoned. It may have been to far north to get food to, or even grow (through it seems to be abandoned long before we start to see Temperatures declines as we go from the Roman Warm Period to the Dark Ages Cold Period).

In Garrison, Roman Troops ate a varied amount of food, but on the march it was grain that they had to ground themselves. Thus Roman Forces could NOT march to far from any source of Grain (Thus no movement across the Sahara Desert, into what is now Poland or the Ukraine, or even up the Nile as the Army went to far south for Wheat to be grown). Roman attacks on Persia tended to follow the same path, the path of Grain Growing.

One theory holds that the Romans abandon Britain in 410 AD, not so much to raise troops to defeat the Goths, but also do to it was becoming more difficult to raise grain in Britain using Mediterranean Farming Techniques given that the Climate was getting colder and winter harsher and thus the ground harder to "break" in the spring just to plant crops.



http://www.longrangeweather.com/global_temperatures.htm

Thus Hadrian Wall main purpose may have been to keep Britons inside what is now England for many were escaping to the Picts and raise cattle, rather then stay in Roman Britain and by hard work plant the grain the Roman Army needed (using pick and shovel techniques for the heavy plow was not yet known to Western Europe). Rome had Iron Tools, including spades and even plows, but not to the extent of the Chinese of the same time period, and without the heavy plow what grain the Romans in Britain could grow in areas of harsh winters was limited for the only other way to break grown after a hard long winter was with a spade, one foot at a time.

Think about it, along the Mediterranean coast you could hook up a ox and have it plow up a huge plot of land, that could then be planted with grain (and in Latium itself, whose center was the City of Rome, you could do this two times a year). In areas with hard winter such plows would NOT dig into the soil, it was compacted to much (a side effect of its being FROZEN). Thus the only way to plant crops was by Spade work, one foot at a time. I would not be surprised if they find that the fields around Hadrian's wall were worked each summer by the Soldiers maintaining that wall (lack of labor to do all the spade work need to grow wheat for the soldier to eat the rest of the year). With the cooling of Europe after about 350 AD, by 400 AD it may have been almost impossible to man Hadrian's wall, for the summer had become to short for wheat (In the Middle ages, there is a Story of an English Diplomat saying "Oats, what is feed to Horses in England, and men in Scotland, The queen's response was quick "But where else do you see such beautiful horses and beautiful men".

You must understand the average growing season of various crops, here is the minimum time between the first planting and first harvesting (Average).

Barley........... - 107 days
Corn..............- 128 days
Cotton.......... - 153 days
Oats............... - 98 days
Peanuts........ - 137 days
Rice............... - 137 days
Sorghum....... - 153 days
Soybeans...... - 153 days
Spring Wheat - 107 days

Winter Wheat - 338 days - Less 231 days over wintering - 107 days
Rye................ - 282 days - Less 231 days over wintering - ..51 days

http://www.nass.usda.gov/Publications/Usual_Planting_and_Harvesting_Dates/uph97.pdf

Now, the above is the MINIMUM times, you generally had 30 days to plant and the harvest any crop. The Romans had Rye, but considered it a poor crop, but it is not believed they had Winter Wheat.

Thus you had one test for how far North a Roman Army could march, was the area's growing season long enough for Wheat. A lesser test was if the Soil could be done with Mediterranean farming techniques.

Here is a British Map on Average temperatures, Bottom 1/3 of the Island of Britain has decent average temperatures, then you see a substantial drop as you near Hadrian's wall, and a further drop as you go further north. The 8 days growing difference AND Roman's first choice of Wheat as their grain may explain why Rome Abandoned Britain after 400 AD, not enough wheat in the northern half of the Country ti feed any army that went north

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
43. The Romans originally were after England's tin for bronze production....
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 07:03 PM
Sep 2013

But that was long before the Dark Ages.

Like I said, the Dark Ages was "dark" because of the anti-intellectual drive by the Church. The wiping out of all prior religion was so effective that it was common in Europe to wipe history of entire cultures by killing all the people and eliminating all of their artifacts.

Oh,...and while the original people appointed by the Church to be "royal" knew it was a crock, after 4 generations the bullshit was BELIEVED. The ruling elite actually thought they were doing the will of God.

This is why it was disgusting to hear that Ken Lay used to start Enron board meetings with a prayer.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
45. I do not see an anti-intellectual attitude in that time period
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 10:51 PM
Sep 2013

Even the Arabs of the Dark Ages Credited the Nestorian Priests of teaching them the fundamentals of Greek Science and Roman Technology. Books from the Greek and Roman time periods were copied and often translated into new tongues (Thus the Slavonic version of "The Jewish War&quot . Charlemagne encouraged education as did Alfred the Great of England (Alfred went as far as Rome to learn).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Church_of_the_East#Islamic_rule

Latin Survived

Latin almost died out with the Fall of the Roman Empire, but within 150 years all of the Successor States were reinstating the teaching of Latin in their Cities (Latin had by the time of the late Republic broken into two groups, Latin as taught by profession teachers and "Vulgar Latin" which was spoken in the Streets. We know this for every so often you read a paper complaining about a Latin Writing using a non-Latin Term that is also NOT a term from another Language, some even complaining about how such a construction of words could be Latin, when the terms are all Latin but NOT traditional Latin).

Vulgar Latin is the ancestor of today's Romance languages, but none of them were ready to be used as a written language till the High Middle Ages, thus the return to Latin in the 700s.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Medieval_Latin

One bishop even wrote an encyclopedia during the Dark Ages, most of it is from other sources but it clearly shows science had NOT been forgotten during the Dark Ages:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Etymologiae

We even have a book from the Dark Ages written by a Woman, it is instruction to her son how to live as oppose to Science or technology, but it shows that women in the Dark Ages could be Educated:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dhuoda

Disappearance of Papyrus

One of the problems with records from the Dark Ages is Parchment. With the breakdown in International Trade by the Vandals taking Carthage in 451 AD, Papyrus cease to be readily available (Through we have surviving Documents from the Dark Ages that are on Papyrus). In Roman times, Parchment and Papyrus were both used. Papyrus was cheaper, rougher, did not last any where near from Parchment did, only available from Egypt through trade (Parchment could be made anywhere) and to weak to be used used in a Codex (i.e. what we call a "Book" as opposed to a Scroll) through some Codices in late Roman Empire and the Dark Ages were made with Papyrus).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Papyrus

With the adoption of Codex as the preferred way to keep paperwork during the Roman Empire, Parchment started to replace Papyrus as the preferred thing to write on. With the break down in trade due to the Vandals taking Carthage, Parchment became supreme (Through we have papyrus documents from the late Middle Ages, Papyrus disappears completely as Linen Paper was introduced from China, Parchment held on for any record people wanted to keep for a very long time period AND wanted that look of Parchment).

In the time of the Roman Empire Papyrus was used and available and cheap (compared to Parchment). This permitted a lot more writing to occur for people could put something on Papyrus and if others decided it was worth it, re written on Parchment. In the Dark Ages, it was expensive Parchment or nothing. Thus a lot of writing ended up on chalk, in the dust or on bark (other methods of sending written messages, but none have a long life span).

Given this restrictions, and the cost of Parchment, only important records were kept at all. A comparison can be made with Data bases today. Something like 98% of all data is kept on line today. Given that they is a lot of old data still on paper, how did we get 98% of all data on line? The Answer is simple, we made it. What we would NEVER have kept in the days of paper, we now keep on the Computer.

Affect on data from that time period

40 years ago if I went to a Store and purchased a candy bar, I would pay my 25 cents, the clerk would take my quarter, I would get a receipt. Would the Clerk note that I purchased a Candy Bar? NO, all she would do is report I paid 25 cents. At the end of the day she would report all her sales. NOT as individual sales just the total. These would be combined with totals from other clerks and total sales would be determined. What was sold? No one knew or cared. At the end of the Month these totals would again be added up to get a total Monthly Sale, then at the end of the year total sales for the year.

Sometime during the year, inventory would be taken and what was missing. Why the items were missing was unimportant, that the item was missing and had to be re-ordered was important. These missing items were tied in with sales for the same period and net profit was obtained. Notice no calculations for any single good (unless they were expensive, for example cars, washers, dryers, refrigerators, stoves (and other "White" Goods, now called "Durable Goods&quot were cost as time of sale less cost of buying the car for inventory but those were rare buys).

That was it. No one knew who bought each candy bar, they did not know when it was sold (they could determine the day or month depending how often they had to re-order it but that is all).

Now, look at today. You get a print out of everything you purchased, not just the price. That data is kept in the Cash register. The Cash register keeps not only what I bought, but when and where. This data is transmitted to central computer of the store I purchased the items at and stored and shared with people who think that data is useful. Because we can MINE these data bases we have made, they have value and we can determine who will buy what when to a good degree. Why can be do this, is it is cheap to gather the data. We did not do it 40 years ago for it would have been EXPENSIVE to gather the data.

The same with the Dark Ages. With Papyrus hard to get and Linen Paper only in China, expensive parchment was reserved to items deems worth it. Most were books from the Classical period which were copied during the Dark Ages by those religious driven monks. In fact, except for some rare exceptions, all of the books we have from Ancient Rome and Greece had been re-copied during the Dark Ages by those religious Monks.

What reports we have of the Ancient gods had to be re written by those monks. The Arabs, only after their Conversion to Islam, adopted a similar policy to these books. The Eastern Empire never seems to have left them alone. (Aesop s fable was written done in the Eastern Empire and was a popular book in the Eastern Empire (Through it should be noted the Eastern Empire never lost its ability to obtain
Papyrus unlike the Western Europe).

Josephus and the Jewish war

One of my favorite Controversy over Josephus "The Jewish War"involved the Church Slavonic version of that book. It differs from the Greek Version, first it gives a report on the early Christian Church and provides a different way for Josephus's survival of his pact to commit suicide and several other differences.

There are two arguments as to these differences, first that these were done by the Translator into Slavonic. The problem Scholars have with this argument is no 9th Century Christian would write what is written in the Slavonic version of the Jewish War AND why would a 9th Century translator change "by the will of God I was picked to be last" to "I calculated carefully so I would be the last survivor"? Antisemitism was alive and well, but the Pope made an effort to protect the Jews in Germany in the ninth Century, thus no need for a translator to make Josephus escape from the Jewish side to the winning Roman Side worse then it was.

The second theory is that the Slavonic prince who wanted the Jewish War translated wanted a rarer but earlier version of the Jewish war translated for it had a description of early Christians, even through religious leaders called it a bad report. This original Greek version is now lost to us, but it appears that was the version of the Jewish War someone wanted translated, so it was. The reason for the difference was Josephus himself.

You must remember prior to the printing press, most people did NOT read books by themselves, instead readers went from town to town and read them to people who were willing to pay them to read it to them (and this was generally a large group could be 100 or more). Most people did not know how to read and given the lack of books (and their costs) it generally did not pay for most people to learn to read and write (Even as late as the American Revolution, Washington ORDERED Paine's book "Common Sense" for most of his men could NOT read or write but Washington wanted them to hear what Paine had written).

Now, sometimes these readings were free (for example, Julius Caesar used his position as High Priest of Rome, to his comments of the wars in Gaul to the people of Rome and had his lower Priests read it to them).

Anyway, it appears Josephus not only wanted money from readers reading the book to people willing to hear it, he also wanted to be known as a loyal subject of the Emperor, whose father he helped in the Jewish War (i.e Josephus wanted an increased pension). Thus, after he wrote the what is now the Slavonic version someone came up to him and pointed out the errors. Josephus saw what he had written would NOT get him a pension so he re-wrote the part on how he survived. At the same time someone told him he was wrong as to the Christians, so rather then re-write that part he simply deleted it.

While I lean to the second argument, the reason I bring it up was these old books were read, understood and even translated during the Dark Ages. The translation of the Jewish War to Slavonic is an example of that. The Etymologiae was read during the Dark Ages (and remain Popular enough to be one of the first book printed on a printing press). Yes it contained a lot of writing from other sources, but it shows knowledge and intellectual activity was alive and well during the Dark Ages. It is a lot harder to find, but given the general decline in temperatures (and the subsequent need spend more time looking for food) is a better explanation then any anti-intellectual attitude as to the Church. People want to believe that to be the case, but when you look deep into the Dark Ages it is simply not there.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
46. While Europe under Christianity went through the Dark Ages, the Muslim World did NOT...
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 12:02 AM
Sep 2013

Hence many of the discoveries and tales of pre-Christian Europe only survived through the Muslims.

Egypt's culture was so decimated it took the finding of the Rosetta Stone to know how to read hieroglyphics.

Face it. There was a purge of knowledge.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
49. Egypt were purged by the Romans
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 03:11 AM
Sep 2013
Egypt at the time of Augustus

The Romans never truly trusted Egypt. Most conquered areas had a person in the Roman Senate within 20 years of their Conquest, Egypt it took 140 years. When the various temples were rebuilt by the Emperors during the Second and Third centuries, Egypt's temples were ignored. By the time the Christians came to power in the Roman Empire, the Egyptian scribe appears to have fallen completely out of use. Greek was the language of culture in the Eastern Empire and that is what everyone spoke.

The chief reason was Egypt was the richest province in the Empire. No Patricians (and NEVER a Senator) could even visit Egypt with permission of the sitting Emperor., The Roman Ruler of Egypt was NEVER a Patrician, it was always a Prefect who was always from the Roman equestrian order

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Praefectus_Augustalis

Ponitus Pilate is most famous Roman Perfect, through he never ruled Egypt. As a member of the Roman equestrian order he could NOT command Roman Troops, but could command Auxiliaries.

The Roman equestrian order had been in the early Republic the Light Cavalry of the Roman Army. During the Second Punic War, the role of Light Cavalry expanded, but they was NOT enough Roman equestrians to fill the void, so some Plebeians were put on horses then when a force of Cavalry defected from Hannibal to Rome, they were put under the Command of Roman equestrians. This started the long Roman Tradition that Auxiliaries served under Equestrians, something that was maintained till the crises of the Third Century.

Reforms of Diocletian and Constantine

I mention this for the Governor of Egypt NEVER had any Roman Troops till after the reforms of Diocletian in the late 200s. These reforms amounted to the removal of the last of Senatorial say in how the Army was operated, after Diocletian you do NOT hear of a Senator commanding an Roman Army. These reforms also put the Army in charge of the decedents of lead Centurion of each legion. Augustus had started the practice of making the Lead Centurion of each legion into the Equestrian class, but then not of that class. That group and their decedents slowly took over running the Roman Army. By the crisis of the Third Century these decedents of Centurions were being given command of the legions, which technically they could not be given (The Emperor worked around this, calling each appointment "Temporary&quot . This divided the Army from the Roman Elite but these new Equestrian were also the most dependent on the Emperor (And Constantine would surround himself with members of this class, calling them his "Companions" latin Comites, which in the Dark Ages became the word "Count".

Egypt

Rome just looted Egypt. We actually have a report from a Bishop of Egypt at the time of the Arab Conquest saying that he was glad of the Conquest for it removed the tyrants that had been stealing the Country blind.

http://www.copticchurch.net/topics/thecopticchurch/arab_conquest_of_egypt.pdf

Now, you must understand the Late Roman Empire, it had three "centers", the Latin West (about 40% of the Empire), the Greek North-East (The poorest part of the Empire) and that part of the Empire From Syria to Libya that spoke variation of Arabic (Ancient Egyptian is such a variation). While that was the three main languages spoken, the language of Government, Military and Commerce were Latin and Greek. Thus from the time of Egypt being taken over by Julius Caesar and the Fall of Egypt, first to the Persian in 618-629 then to the Arabs in 642.

The last known use of hieroglyphic writing was in 394, three years after all Pagan Temples were closed by Theodosius I in 391 AD, through it appears few really understood them at that time due to Greek and Roman hostility to Egyptian Religion (Some cults were tolerated, but the religion as a whole was not).
Please note, while Theodosius I ordered all pagan temples closed in 391, he did not go out of his way to enforce his own law. Thus Justinian in the 500s had towns within the Empire with still active Pagan Temples, which he ordered closed,

Gold Coins

Theodosius I, seems to have continued Constantine I policy of how to enforce the new currency laws. The Spanish Silver Mines had watered out in the early 200s causing a huge cash problem within the Empire. Since Nero, every time a New Emperor became Emperor he paid the troops a bonus. Now, with the silver coming from the Spanish mines, you had a slight inflation. Do to that slight inflation the economy boomed. As more and more Silver was mined, what you could buy with that silver became less and less, thus inflation. On top of this, the Emperors, starting with Nero would debase the currency to pay the troops even more money (in the form of debased currency).

When the Spanish mines watered out, they was no more silver to make new coins. Thus that only left debasing the Currency, which the Emperors all did in the third century crisis. By the time of Diocletian the Roman Coins had very little Silver in them and no one wanted them and batter had become the way of the Empire. Diocletian tried to solve this problem by issuing new coins with 85% silver content. People hoarded these coins for Diocletian did not have the Silver to mint enough of them to push the bad coins out of circulation.

When Constantine became Emperor he decided to opt for a Gold Coin Instead (The Solidus) His source of Gold? The old pagan temples. Thus the Christian attacks on the Old Pagan Temples was encouraged by Constantine for one of the condition was the Christians had to turn over any pagan idols over to him to melt down (Which he did and used the gold to mint gold coins). The Solius would stay the standard of the World till 1035 when the Byzantine started to debase it (But stay an important coin in international usage till about 1300 when the Venetian Zecchino, a similar sized Gold Coin took over its place as the International Standard). The Venetian Coin, to rare for true international usage, was replaced in the role by the German Silver Thalar about 1450, from which we get the word Dollar via the Spanish and Mexican production of Mexican Dollars of the about the same size and composition (In between the Spanish Pieces of Eight and the American Dollar, the British pound for be the international currency starting about 1750 but ending during WWII)

Source of Gold for Gold Coins

I bring up the coins, for that appears to be why Constantine and his successors went after the old pagan temples, not for religious reasons, but for the gold in the golden idols. If a temple had no golden idols, it survived till Justinian's time (and maybe later). The Acropolis in many ways shows this the best. No one has EVER found a altar at the Acropolis, the reason is it was NEVER a temple. It was the Athenian bank with a huge golden idol of Athena but Altar to to her (Her Altar was in her temple in the city of Athens itself). Having a golden Idol, the Acropolis was converted to a church and the idol taken down and melted (But the pagan cravings on the walls were left alone).

Preserving the Currency seems to be the main reason the temples were attacked. In the 700s the Byzantine Empire would embrace iconoclasm, the banning of "idols" in churches. By idols they meet images of Christ and the Saints, and it seems to be for the same reason, the Emperor wanted Gold to pay the Troops, but by then they were no pagan temples, so he had to go after Christian Churches to loot.

The whole destruction of ancient temples seems to be related to establish a stable currency so the troops could be paid NOT for any other reason. The excuse was the temples were pagan, but that was NOT the reason for if it was the reason the huge number of Pagan temples that survived till the time of Justinian would not have.

Thus the movement away from paganism in the late Roman Empire was driven by the need to get gold from some place, and that appears the best place for such gold was the old Pagan Temples and that is why they were attacked, not for religious reason (through religion was used as an excuse). I hate to say this the 1% wanted their coins and from the 300s till the 1400s that was Gold.

Egypt after Rome

Egypt became the richest province of the Arabic Empire, but like most empire it collapsed within 100 years of its foundation. Spain had been conquered by then, but ruled by a different set of Moslems then ruled Egypt and Iraq. A Shiite dynasty, the Fatima dynasty ruled Egypt just before the Crusades, but they had a weak hold on the country. The Fatima Dynasty collapsed, replaced by Saladin, then the Mamaluks. It is believed Egypt was majority Christian as late as the Crusades, but the Mamaluks, fearing the Mongols, started to enforce rules that made it easier to convert to Islam, but impossible to convert back. The reason the Mamaluks believed in the maxim, one nation, one religion. They had to tolerate the Christians in Egypt, but that did not mean the could not discriminate against them (and they did).

Thus by the end of the Crusades or shortly afterward it is believed most Egyptians were Moslem. The previous Moslem Rulers had NEVER been as discriminatory as the Mamaluks became (And after them the Turks adopted many of the same rules, but not at first, only after about 1600, prior to that the Ottoman Empire was as much Greek Orthodox and is was Turkic Islamic).

I am getting away from the time period I am trying to stay on, the Dark Ages 400-1000 AD, but during that time period, Egypt was Christian, through ruled by Moslems. By agreeing to the Conquest by the Arabs, Egypt was able to get rid of their old Roman Elite and replace them with new Islamic Elite, but being new they wanted less. This is typical when one country takes over another, they replace the top and can often get the 99% to agree to their rule by increasing the share of the Country's wealth that goes to the 99%.

In the case of Egypt, many of their peasants had seen a reduction in their rental payments during the time of the Persian occupation, then saw those rental payments returned when Roman Rule was restored, that they were willing to have a new set of masters so their rents be lowered once again. This reduction in rent made Egypt boom during the period 650-900. It boomed again after Saladin replaced the Fatima Dynasty for the same reason. Egypt Stagnated as the rule of the Mamaluk lasted for Centuries. When the Turks ruled Egypt they did not replace the Mamaluk but worked with them, causing no improvement in the life of the Egyptian Peasant. When the French invaded, they did not make the needed land reforms, and that failure has continued. Sooner or later someone will do land reform in Egypt and Egypt will boom, but that means talking lands away from the present rulers of Egypt, and those Army Generals will oppose that.


Ancient Greek Ideas spreads to Italy

You mention the Arabs preserving Ancient Greek Ideas, but the spread of those ideas into Italy appears to be from Constantinople after that city was sacked by the Fourth Crusade (the only Crusade Condemned before it even started by the Pope). The result of that Crusade was the destruction of what had been the largest city in the World at that time (Baghdad would then surpass it, but in 1258 it would be sacked by the Mongols, who called it the Largest City they ever took, and that included the cities of China).

The leading minds of Constantinople, after 1204 started a slow but steady movement to Italy and with this movement you get the start of the Renaissance. Roman law is rediscovered, Greek art and Science is rediscovered. There seems to be a similar draw of knowledge from Moslem Spain, but not from the Middle East proper (Algebra and the concept of Zero seems to have come from Spain, but one ninth century pope endorsed zero and the decimal digit system, through we have no written report of people in Western Europe using Hindu-Arabic Numbers till after Linen Paper in introduced into Europe in the 1200s).

The Mongol sacking of Baghdad had scared everyone in the Mid East, the Mamaluk rulers of Egypt decided they needed some breathing space so they defeated an out post of the Mongols in Syria. After that battle the Mamaluks then rigged a war with the remaining Crusading kingdoms to drive them out of the Middle East. Unlike earlier wars where both sides tried to preserve the economy of the country they were conquering, the Mamaluks did not want the economy to survive, they wanted a dead space between themselves and the Mongols. The Crusaders wanted to preserve the economy of that part of the Middle East, but the Mamaluks had another agenda. Thus the almost complete destruction of the Crusaders kingdoms, castles and most important for the Mamaluks, the farm fields. In the previous 200 years both sides had done massacres of each other civilians, but had left the field and the peasants working those fields alone, now their were the targets.

This fears of the Mongols made any information exchange between the Arabs and the West impossible at that time period, thus it was the Moslems in Spain and the survivors of the Fourth Crusades out of Constantinople that brought ancient Greek teachings to Italy during the Renaissance. A time period of improve crop yields as the Middle Ages Warm Period replaced the Dark Age Cold period.
 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
50. Actually, the final blow to Egypt was when the "mad monks of Nitria" tore Hyapatia to pieces....
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 01:17 PM
Sep 2013

Good movie on that:



http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Agora_%28film%29

She claimed to be the last living decedent of the line of Cleopatra.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
51. I see you problem, you are of the Ronald Reagan School of History
Sat Sep 14, 2013, 11:21 PM
Sep 2013

i.e. you get your history from movies.

Cleopatra

First Cleopatra's children were raised by Antony's wife (and Augustus's sister). The Children were later married off to the King of what is now Algeria, and when that was annexed by Rome under Caligula, the family returned to Rome. The Family later married the Governor of Judea, who divorced that woman, who returned to Rome. A Great Grand Daughter later married into a Client King of Syria, but that is as far as Cleopatra's line can be traced.

Cleoprata's Great Grandchild born 38 AD:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Drusilla_of_Mauretania_(born_38)

Zenobia of Palmyra (240-275 AD) would claim decent from Cleopatra but no one can made the trace (There is a two hundred year gap to cover). As one Historian said, Zenobia's achievements exceeded anything Cleopatra ever hoped to do so why claim decent?. The reason for the claim seems to be that Zenobia was the first Non-Roman Ruler of Egypt since Cleopatra, and when in doubt make a claims (Zenobia also claimed decent from other former rulers). Remember when it doubt make a claim someone might ever believe you:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zenobia

From what we can determine the Family was NEVER permitted back into Egypt. Remember it was ILLEGAL for ANY Patriacian to go to Egypt without permission of the Emperor himself, thus anyone who MIGHT use Egypt as a base against Rome just was NOT permitted to go to Egypt. Since Cleopatra's children had married into the ruling class of Rome, they were NOT permitted to go to Egypt.

AS to the rest of Cleopatra's family, they had had all been killed off by Cleopatra herself (including her brother and her younger sister). Thus unless Hypathia claimed decent from at least one Roman Emperor, no basis in historical record.

The Roman Empire in 415 AD:

In 395 Theordorius I died, he was the last Ruler of an intact Roman Empire. He divided his empire between his two sons. Honorius, age 10, received the Western Empire, Arcadius, age 18, the East. Both were weak rulers but had good advisers.

Arcadius would die in 408 AD, succeeded by Theodosius II then age 8 (Through Theodosius would rule till 450 AD). Theodosius II built the Theodosius walls of Constantinople and founded the University of Constantinople which "31 chairs for law, philosophy, medicine, arithmetic, geometry, astronomy, music, rhetoric and other subjects, 15 to Latin and 16 to Greek.".

The University of Constantinople was not a University in the Western sense of the word, for it was NOT its own Corporation but like earlier Greek School, but a place for people to go to learn. It was a place where teachers went to teach (and be paid by their Students). Some of these teachers were paid by the State, but many were not. The University of Constantinople survived till the Fall of Constantinople in 1204 AD

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/University_of_Constantinople
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Byzantine_university

While Theodosius II ruled during this period, his rule was weak, but the most important person in his palace was his sister (and eventual successor, through technically the man she married at that time succeeded Theodosius II),

More on Theodosius II's Sister:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulcheria

His wife, picked by his sister (and who had three children by him only one outlived the couple and had children herself):
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Aelia_Eudocia

Anyway with the Death of Theodosius I in 395 AD, the Goths revolted again. The Goths marched on Constantinople by were stopped, and then looted Greece, including Athens, Corinth and Sparta. For this act the Eastern Empire made him Military Ruler of what use to be called Yugoslavia (he had it already, so they gave him what he already had). in 401 the Goths invade Italy, they retreated in 403, but attacked again in 407 taking Rome in 410 AD (it was an agreed to "Sacking" the Goths could sack all the public buildings for three days, then leave, the Goths accepted and did as agreed, no private homes were sacked). The Goth headed south for two years, then north and exited Italy for Gaul in 412 AD. By 415 the Goths were ruling Southern Gaul. The peasants of Armoricans (in modern Brittany) were in armed revolt and the Franks were marching West into Northern Gaul.

In 406 AD the Vandals had invaded Gaul, while it was in revolt against the Sitting Western Emperor and the Gauls were in their first attack in Italy. In 409 they cross into Spain. They stayed in Spain till 429 when they invaded Tunisia (Carthage, the second largest city in the Western Empire).

It was reported of massive destruction when the Vandals invaded Carthage, but that is NOT supported by Archaeology. The problem seems to be the Vandals, having NEVER been defeated by the Romans had NEVER had to agree to any Roman terms, thus when they took over Carthage they appear to kick out the old 1% and replaced them with themselves. It turned out the local peasants liked this, for what the Vandals demanded in rent was way less what the Roman Elite had demanded.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vandals

Notice the situation in the West, The Empire was on its last leg. It was unwilling to arm its peasants to fight the Barbarians for fears that the Peasants would use those weapons to remove the Roman 1%. The Peasants taxes were quite low, the problem was the RENT they had to pay for the land they were farming. The Rent often exceeded what they could earn, thus they starved. This is the same situation that France found itself in 1789, Russia in 1917, China between 1926 and 1949, and Vietnam in the 1930s. In all these instances land reform was needed, Rome was very slow at doing so (and ended up retreating to the only area WITHOUT large Estates). There is even some Roman Writers of the time period saying so, which is a shock for anyone who could write was part of the 1%.

Now, the East was much more Stable. The Greek Part of the Empire had NEVER been known for large Estates. Since the reforms of Diocletian, the army had become more and more dependent on that part of the Empire for Troops.

On the other hand, both empires were unwilling even think of land reform, i.e. give land to the peasants after stripping it from the 1%. What the West tried to do is get the Germanic Invaders to accept some land and suppress the 99%, and when that failed invade the west under Justinian (But that is 100 years after the time of Hypatia).

While the Germanic and Hunnic invaders were hit the Eastern Empire, no permanent move into the Eastern Empire till the Slavic Invasions of the 600s. While the Vandals would later command ships and sack Rome (460 AD) that is after the time period we are discussing, but at a time period when the Western Empire no longer existed except on paper.

The only military threat to the Eastern Empire was the Persian Empire of that time period. Since the defeat of Emperor Julian in 363 AD, the two empires had been at peace but Tensions were mounting. Thus in 422 the Eastern Empire declared war on Persia, fought for two years and signed a peach treaty. The Persians said a Christian Bishop had destroyed one of their fire Temples, and all they had requested as he rebuild it. When the Bishop refused AND WAS EXECUTED FOR REFUSING, an general persecution of Christians in the Persian Empire commenced. Given the duration of the War, that no land change hands, something else way up, most likely a test of strength by Persia as to the Eastern Empire, given that the Western Empire was under full scale attack by the Goths, Franks, Vandals etc. When it became clear that the Eastern Empire still had enough troops to defend itself, the Persian signed a new peace treaty.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roman%E2%80%93Sassanid_War_(421%E2%80%93422)

Visigoths:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theodosius_I
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visigoths

Thus that was the world situation at the time of Hypathia. The Goths were in Gaul, having marched through Italy in the previous decade. The Gothic King (Ataulf) was married Placidia, the the sister of the Western Emperor Honorius (and thus she was also a daughter to Theodosius I). Ataulf was killed in August or September 415. That was a shock to the Roman World, the killer was then killed and the Goths had to agree to a Peace Treaty in exchange for food in 416 (This also returned Placidia to her brother, who then married to her off to his top General the future Constantius_III.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Galla_Placidia
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constantius_III


Political situation in Alexandria - Destruction of the Serapeum

One of Hypatia's former Students was Bishop Synesius in Libya in 410 and who is believed to have died in 414 (Mostly because he made no comments about the death of Hypatia, no other reason for the date of death is known). Synesius was anti-corruption AND anti-barbarians in the army person, saying so to the Emperor in Constantinople the 390s.

Synesius had been consecrated bishop by Theophilus of Alexandria, who was Pope of the Egyptian Church from 385-412 AD. In 391 Theophilus had ordered the destruction of the largest Pagan Temple in Alexandria (And the largest in the world). He Theophilus was succeeded by his nephew Cyril who is the Bishop at the time of the death of Hypatia

The destruction of the Serapeum (This is also called the "Destruction of the Great Library of Alexandria", but the only report we have of books or scrolls is one from the Perfect of Alexandria "Today there exist in temples book chests which we ourselves have seen, and, when these temples were plundered, these, we are told, were emptied by our own men in our time, which, indeed, is a true statement. " i.e. his men took away any books, they were NOT destroyed.

http://www.esotericonline.net/group/hypatia-the-last-of-the-neoplatonists/forum/topics/the-library-of-alexandria-and-the-sack-of-serapeum
:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serapeum

The reason for this was simple, the sacking of the Temple was an organized ritual, not a riot. The Emperor wanted any gold in the Temple for his own use (to mint into Gold Coins so he could pay his troops). The Emperor wanted anything else of value (silver, jewels, books, i.e. things he could SELL). The Perfect knew this is what the Emperor wanted and he was NOT going to let any mob steal anything of value. Thus it was a very ordered destruction, something even Pagan observer of the destruction report.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Synesius
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theophilus_of_Alexandria
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cyril_of_Alexandria

Now the destruction of the Serapeum occurred in 391, Hypatia was still alive in 415, thus we are looking at two events 24 years later (The end of the Vietnam war and the Invasion of Iraq to topple Saddam in 2002 was 27 years apart for comparison).

The City of Alexandria itself in 415

Alexandria was the Second largest city in the Roman Empire in 415. Constantinople, which would soon pass Rome, Alexandria and Carthage was a distant fourth in 415 AD (Carthage was the Second largest City in the WESTERN EMPIRE, but the Third behind Alexandria if you look at both Eastern and Western Empires as one).

As the Second largest city in the Empire, Alexandria was known to be a very divisive place to live, with various quarters of the City NOT liking each other. This had been the case since its founding by Alexander the Great 700 years earlier (and appears to one of the reasons the Arabs when they took Egypt in 639 AD moved their Capital to inland, first to Fustat, then in the 969s to modern day Cairo).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fustat
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cairo#Initial_settlements

We have a long record of community fights within Alexander during the Roman Period, Jews vs Pagans, Christians vs Jews, Christian vs Pagans, Greek Pagans vs Roman Pagans, Greek Pagan vs Carthaginian Pagans, etc. (This type of tension would arise in Constantinople as it became the largest city, Constantinople inherited four groups from Rome, The Blues, Greens, Reds and Whites, colors of the four chariot team groups in the Circus. By the time of Justinian only the Blues and Greens mattered and would lead to the NIKA Riots the largest sport riot in history).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nika_riots

Like most riots, the Nika, needed only a spark to set it off. The same with the situation in Alexandria in 415, all you needed was a spark, some minor event that hits the people of a city already in tension for other reasons (mostly to do with food and housing) to riot. In the US you saw this in the 1960s and in many ways this is what happened when the Shah was overthrown in 1979 and Murabuk was removed from power in Egypt in 2012.

Hypatia

As to Hypatia herself, not much is known. No works of hers is known to survive (what work that is believed she did, she wrote with her Father and edited some works of her Father, which was common in Ancient times. I would not be surprise that some of her Father's work were her's that is also common at that time).

What we do know of her death is from two accounts (both written by Christians). One written about 420 AD (just after her death), the other at the time of the Arab Conquest, c 650 AD. The first account, the one written shortly after her death, relates to a fight between the Bishop of Alexandria and the Perfect of Alexandria. Both were Christians, thus it was an inter Christian fight over who had what power in Alexandria, the Bishop or the Perfect, i.e. the Religious leader or the "Governor" (a more accurate modern term then his actual position of Perfect) appointed by the Emperor.

Into this fight came 500 Monks on the side of the Bishop, who then attacks the Perfect (Governor) who escapes. Then efforts are made to get the Bishop and Perfect (Governor) to reconcile but that came to nothing and a rumor spreads that since the Perfect (Governor) was seeking advice from Hypathia, she was the one preventing the two politicians from putting their differences aside and working together. At hearing that a mob finds her, strips her and kills her. Both the Bishop and the Perfect (Governor) only learn of this later and are so shocked by the event that they then reconcile.

The Second version appears to be written during the time of the Arab Rule of Egypt by a Coptic Priest (c 650 AD). The Coptic Church disliked being ruled by Moslems, but also disliked the Byzantine Rulers that proceeded them. Thus the Perfect (Governor) being an appointee of the Empire that the Coptic Church had grown to hate, became someone under the influence of Hypathia who herself was a witch (This goes along with the Coptic position that the Byzantine Empire had broken faith with Christ by embracing the concept that Christ had two nature instead of one nature that the Coptic Church embraced).

Thus the Bishop was blameless, and the Perfect under the influence of a Witch was the reason for the dispute between the Perfect (Governor) and the Bishop. Anyway, under her influence, the Perfect (Governor) then urged the Jews of Alexandria to attack the Main Christian Church, this attack occurred and many Christians were killed, The Bishop gathers the surviving Christians and launches an counter attack on the Jews, forcing them out of Alexandria and during that attack Hypathia is discovered and killed. The writer goes on that this lead to the end of paganism in Alexandria.

The problem with the second story, written more then 230 years after the event, is first, Paganism survived in Alexandria for at least another 100 years (Justinian ended it). We also know that the dispute over the "Nature" of Christ had more to do with who ruled the Empire then the true "Nature" of Christ (i.e. Egypt, Palestine, Syria the "Arabic" speaking part of the Empire supported one side, while the other side was supported by the "Greek" side, from what is today Slovenia, Croatia and Serbia, through Modern Day Greece to and including modern day Turkey).

Please note, both sides spoke and used Greek. The problem was the lower classes, the 99%. In the "Greek" part of the Empire, Slovenia, Croatia and Serbia, through Modern Day Greece to and including modern day Turkey, spoke Greek (Through some areas spoke Latin, such as modern day Romania and some other towns in that part of the Empire). From Syria to Egypt to Libya, a variation of Egyptian, which included Arabic, was the dominate local language of the peasants.

During the period 300-600 AD. Rome raised almost no troops from the Arabic/Egyptian speaking part of the Empire. Rome raised most of its troops in the Greek speaking part of the Empire (Almost all surviving Military text of this period is in Greek not Latin). Technically the Latin speaking west was another area to raise troops, but given that from 250 AD onward most peasants in the West were either Slaves or freeman working on large estates (and could not leave without permission of the land owner, who refused to give such permission, even to join the army), the West had ceased to be a place to raise troops except along the frontier where the remains of the old legions were stationed on lands owned by the Emperor.

Dual Nature of Christ

The area that embrace the dual nature of Christ was where the Army was raised (and the areas of mostly small farms). The area with the idea of one Nature of Christ was the areas where the Roman Elite still owned most of the Estates (Egypt, Libya, Palestine and Syria). As long as the Western Empire existed, it balanced these two groups, once the West had fallen, these two groups were heading in different directions and the division over the Nature of Christ was more a way to safely say the two sections were going in different directions, while not saying so.

Remember it often happens that what is being disputed is NOT what is actually the cause of the dispute. During the American Civil War, you hear about "States Rights" when the real issue of Human Slavery. During the 1900-1930 period it was progressives who screamed "States Rights" for the Federal Government was hostile to progressive legislation passed by various states (and progressives wanted progressive laws passed, not struck down by the US Supreme Court). In the 1950s, States Rights was raised again, but this time by Southern Conservatives trying to protect racial discrimination.

I bring these American Claims of State Rights for it shows that often times what is CLAIMED to be the RIGHT you are trying to protect, is NOT what you want to protect, but a cover for something else. The dispute over the Nature of Christ from 450 to 650 AD appears to be one such dispute. The dispute was NOT over the nature of Christ, but who was to rule the Empire (By 450 the Western Empire had Fallen for all practical purposes, it would survive on paper for another 26 years, but all power even in Italy was in the hands of the Germanic Invaders after 450 AD). When the Arabic speaking part of the Empire fell to Islamic Rule, that dispute ended for each section was to be ruled by people who spoke the language of their peasants. The Eastern Empire had divided itself between its two Languages and never become one again after that time period. Once the Eastern Empire had lost Egypt and the rest of the areas that had large Roman Estates, it could only rely in the Small Framers of the Greek Speaking Part of the Empire.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypatia

Thus it appears Hypathia had been caught between a dispute between two politicians who had refused to work together. Like most people in such a situation they was nothing she could have done to avoid her fate (except skip town till the dispute was over). Given the infighting that was going on, she should have avoided appearing to support one side or the other (i.e. after seeing the Perfect/Governor go to the Bishop and tell him what had gone on, thus showing she is NOT taking a side in the dispute). It is noted that the report written near the time of her death makes a point that the Perfect AND the Bishop were NOT involved, in fact SHOCKED by the act. It appears to be one of those acts of Riot that happens in large cities in tension (and that is most cities).

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
53. I am sorry, movies are a bad source of history
Sun Sep 15, 2013, 04:30 PM
Sep 2013

Ronald Reagan understanding of history, appears to be more from Movies made from Hollywood then anything written by people who did research. Movie history tend to be what is popular, not accurate.

From the last paragraph on the Wikipedia site you cite:

Antonio Mampaso, a Spanish astrophysicist and one of Agora's scientific advisors, stated in an interview that "we know that Hypatia lived in Alexandria in the IV and V centuries CE, until her death in 415. Only three primary sources mention Hypatia of Alexandria, apart from other secondary ones". He added that none of Hypatia's work has survived but it is thought, from secondary sources, that her main fields of study and work were geometry and astronomy. Mampaso claimed that Hypatia invented the hydrometer, an instrument still in use today, and that probably her father Theon of Alexandria, together with Hypatia, invented the astrolabe. However, it is generally accepted that the astrolabe had already been invented a couple of centuries earlier, and that the instrument was known to the Greeks before the Christian era. Similarly, the hydrometer was invented before Hypatia, and already known in her time. Synesius sent Hypatia a letter describing a hydrometer, and requesting her to have one constructed for him.
Some reviewers have heavily criticized Agora for historical inaccuracies, heavy artistic licenses and perceived anti-Christian bias in the movie. Robert Barron, an American Catholic priest, writes in an article: "Hypatia was indeed a philosopher and she was indeed killed by a mob in 415, but practically everything else about the story that Gibbon and Sagan and Amenábar tell is false". Irene A. Artemi, a Dr. of Theology of the Athens University, states that "the movie - albeit seemingly not turning against the Christian religion - is in fact portraying the Christians as fundamentalist, obscurantist, ignorant and fanatic". Similarly, the atheist Armarium Magnum blog said: "Over and over again, elements are added to the story that are not in the source material: the destruction of the library, the stoning of the Jews in the theatre, Cyril condemning Hypatia's teaching because she is a woman, the heliocentric "breakthrough" and Hypatia's supposed irreligiousity."


As to the Library, I lean to it being taken by Emperor Julian around 360 ad (30 years BEFORE the destruction of the Temple, and 57 years before the death of Hapatia). Julian was the last of Constantine's family to rule (do to infighting within the family by the time he came of age he was the only male left except for Constantine's son Constantinius II).

After defeating the Germans, Julian decided to lead his army against his then aged uncle, the armies meet ready for battle, then Constantinius II died of old age and both armies declared Julian Emperor. While records from Julian himself shows he had embraced traditional Pagan beliefs before he even became Commander of the Army in Gaul, he continued to celebrate Christian Religious holiday till after he became Emperor (i.e. the Army he lead thought he was Christian not Pagan and the fight with his uncle was over who should rule NOT Christian vs Pagan).

Julian kept up Constantine capital Constantinople and wanted to expand it, for the more he expanded it the more power he could claim. As to Julian's Paganism. While he "Embraced" the old Roman Religion, he did not want a return to the every City in the Empire having its own version of what gods existed. In simple terms, he wanted something like the Christian Church, a Empire Wide Religion with a central dogma and a hierarchy like the Christian Church (i.e. he wanted the Christian Church with Christianity replaced by a centralized Pagan theology).

In many ways the reason Constantine had embraced Christianity was that it would unite the various people of the Empire into one people. Julian wanted to do the same, but based on traditional Pagan Religions. This had been attempted in the 200s and had failed do to the fact each temple in each city had its own agenda and each temple thus rejected the concept of control from above (Through would take money from the Emperor). s of the Christians in the late 200s was in many ways an attempt to get everyone to embrace the old Roman Gods (and was in step of traditional Roman rules that mixed together Roman and Greek gods AND discounted other gods). Diocletian's persecution would have been a first step in setting up a State Religion. Constantine was smart enough to accept that Christianity already had the ability to unite the Empire all he had to do as Emperor was to embrace it, which he had did.

Julian wanted to undo what Constantine had done but then redo it in the form of the old Roman religion. Thus the Pagans did not understand what Julian was doing, nor did the Christians and thus he stayed in power for it actually attacked neither and supported both.

Like Constantine Julian knew he needed gold, and unlike Constantine, he did not want to raid any more Pagan Temples. Thus Julian decided to do Emperor Septimius Severus had done in 197 AD, what Emperor Carus had done in 283, and what Emperor Galerius had done so in 299 AD, sack the Capital of Persia, Ctesiphon (Just south of present day Baghdad). Unfortunately for Julian, the Persians were waiting for him (Unlike the previous times, when the Army was busy in Afghanistan or in a major Civil War), thus his movement was opposed and he was killed in battle, the men of the Army then picked one of their own as Emperor, who declared he was a Christian.

Now, as Julian was planning his attack on Persia and loot Ctesiphon, he also wanted to strengthen the image of the Imperial Capital Constantinople (Which was considered a back water in the 300s, it did not over take Alexandria till the the early 400s and Rome till the mid to late 400s and may be even the early 500s). Thus when Riots broke out in Alexandria, Julian's Roman Governor sent in troops who then raided the temples (These were NON-Roman and Greek Temples and thus held in the same regard by Julian as they were by the Christians). From the Commander of those Troops Julian purchased a huge number of "Books". This is probably what happened to the "Library of Alexandria", Julian ended up with them and deposited then into the Imperial Library of Constantinople (Which was the center of the University of Constantinople founded by Theodosius II in the early 400s) and remained there till the sacking of Constantinople in 1204.

Now, Julian's Christian successors were NOT about to give him any credit for the move, so none was given and thus no records from Christian sources (and I did mention that in the 300s Constantinople was considered a back water). The Pagans did not mention it for they still had access to those books, but now had hated that they were now in Constantinople, a place most of them did not want to go, for they preferred Rome or Alexandria (and thus hated to make the trip). They could blame Julian, but that meant blaming the only non-Christian Emperor after Constantine, something they did not want to do. Thus no one mentioned Julian or his taking of the books.

Such treatment is not unknown even today, for example here is the monument to the US General who lead the Charge during the Second battle of Saratoga:



On the Monument is the following:

Erected 1887 By
JOHN WATTS de PEYSTER
Brev: Maj: Gen: S.N.Y.
2nd V. Pres't Saratoga Mon't Ass't'n:
In memory of
the "most brilliant soldier" of the
Continental Army
who was desperately wounded
on this spot the sally port of
BORGOYNES GREAT WESTERN REDOUBT
7th October, 1777
winning for his countrymen
the decisive battle of the
American Revolution
and for himself the rank of
Major General."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Boot_Monument

Notice the General's name is NOT mentioned. It is the most decisive charge in American History, with it Burgoyne had to surrender his army. When the message hit France, an America rode to the US Ambassador, Ben Franklin. On seeing the Rider Ben Franklin asked "Have they taken Philadelphia?" The Rider said yes (For the British had) but I have great New, Burgoyne has surrendered". With that news, the French signed an Alliance with the US and went to war with Britain. Britain gave up all hopes of retaking America and moved its Army South hoping to hold on to something and that lead to Yorktown.

Why is that General's name NOT on a monument? The British hate him for he lost them all hope of taking over America. The American hate him for what he did late, for his name was Benedict Arnold.

I bring him up for it shows what people will write and not write. In the case of Arnold, what he did to win the War is forgotten, just his treason is remembered. As to the British, they never really forgave him for winning Saratoga and costing them America. Thus he was forgotten by both sides. He lived in the time of linen paper so we have reports of what he did, when he did it and why. Things that would NOT have been written in the days of Parchment and Papyrus (or if they were written down forgotten and left to rot for no one really wanted to read them). No one wants to claim Arnold today, just like no one wanted to claim Julian after he died. Thus what records we have indicate he COULD have taken them, but the records do NOT expressly says so.


http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Historical_urban_community_sizes

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
54. "I am sorry,"
Sun Sep 15, 2013, 04:46 PM
Sep 2013

Uh huh. Sure you are.

Never occurred to you that maybe I get my info from elsewhere as well. I use a movie as an example which covered a little known bit of history and suddenly I am an uninformed idiot on par with Reagan.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
22. Actually that is NOT a Dark Age concept, That is a Renaissance and Reformation Concept
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 08:23 AM
Sep 2013

The idea of Class and the Divine rights of Kings is a Renaissance Concept NOT a Dark Age concept. The Holy Roman Emperors of the Middle Ages where known to be of Peasant Stock (i.e. they ancestors of 100 years before had been peasants). You only see the concept of making the classes as you near the Renaissance, first in Italy then the rest of Europe.

The Concept is completely absent in the Dark Ages itself. You were king because you were King was accepted, but you became King under the rules of your tribe and most of those rules stated it was an elected position. Thus the Pope himself was elected by the people of Rome till the ninth century and a series of very bad Popes show the need for another way to elect the Pope and the present Collage of Cardinals were invented. The Holy Roman Emperor was always an elected position from the Ottos onward (Charlemagne and his son and his grandsons inherited the Title, but that inheritance reflected a good bit of fighting and infighting among the heirs of Charlemagne).

Now, most Holy Roman Emperors were the sons of the previous Emperor. The reason for this is most Emperors made sure they son would be elected after them. This pattern seems also to have been the pattens of most of the Kings and Nobles of the Middle Ages, elected positions by others that went from Father to son, and then everyone accepted inheritance as a "better" way to pick the new king (as oppose to election, which was viewed as old fashioned by the Renaissance).

As to the Dark Ages, most Kings were elected. The switch over from Elected kings to inheritance selection of Kings started in the late Dark Ages (With Charlemagne showing the way), accelerated during the High Middle Ages but only became the common rule in the Renaissance.

 

Spitfire of ATJ

(32,723 posts)
29. By "elected kings" don't you mean "warrior kings"? If you fought for the church you recieved title.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 12:56 PM
Sep 2013

Often a castle was to keep the King next door away. Germany was pockmarked with little kingdoms at one time. Some only extended in a single valley.

BTW: Check this out.

http://blog.visualmotive.com/2009/ebstorf-mappamundi/

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
31. The Church was quick to recognize someone rights to land, when he had troops all over it.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 02:37 PM
Sep 2013

And that is true even to this day, most people will recognize someone's rights to an area when he has troops all over it and no one is even thinking about kicking them out. In the Dark Ages the Church and everyone else were quick to recognize "Facts on the ground".

On the other hand, holding onto that land without cooperation of the peasants farming that land was also hard to do, Machiavelli wrote in the Prince that this was hard to do and the Prince had to work to make sure the peasants accepted him as their ruler. Machiavelli advocated the use of "Colonies" in such areas, Colonies of your ex-soldiers whose rights to the land came from you, and thus willing to support you and your claim to the land for if the Prince lost the land, the Colonists also lost what ever right they had to the land.

The US did the same at the end of WWII, Russia had Eastern Europe and the US army was spent, thus the US did not give Eastern Europe to Stalin, the US just accepted that Stalin had it Same thing with the Communists and China. We disliked it, but since we were NOT going to send troops to undo it, China remained a communist country.

Stalin also did the same. He told the Greek Communists one can NOT hold Greece without a Fleet and he had none, so quit fighting and accept rule by the US allied side. Facts are often brutal, but you also have to accept them.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
36. Actually, that skit misses a problem
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 03:19 PM
Sep 2013

It needed someone to be dragged in front of the Ruler, and when the Ruler sentence him to death, he responds with "Who is going to plant your crop next year and feed these "loyal" followers of yours?" The Ruler then realized he is as dependent on the farmer as the farmer is on him he has to leave the farmer go. No farmer, no food and his men leave him in search of food.

Such rulers came to power because they knew who they could kill and who they could not kill. Upper crusts could be replaced by other cut throats, peasants were hard to find (and if you were to harsh on them hard to keep, the neighboring ruler would gladly take in a new peasants and over up where that peasant came from. In the Dark Ages peasants were in short supply for their options had increased. Walking down the road could get them a better deal then they had at home. In Roman days that option did not exist for the Estates often ran for miles and the owners were all inter-related (They tended to marry each other's cousins), In the Dark ages the estates were smaller and the Church had adopted the concept that you could NOT marry your cousin. One side affect of this is neighbors were more likely NOT to be related and thus slower to turn an escaped peasants over to the peasant's master.

This was one of the reason Feudalism of the Dark Ages worked, it was always a two way street. Rulers needed peasants to work the fields so the ruler could tax the peasants and get food for themselves, their family, their henchmen and their troops. killing off the peasants was never a good thing to do if you wanted to rule that area,

aquart

(69,014 posts)
20. 1. Use grammar check or a good friend before you post long pieces.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 08:07 AM
Sep 2013

2. Try not to rewrite everything to suit modern perceptions.

Personally, I'm shocked as shit that nobody here challenged this outrageous nonsense.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
23. No one likes the Dark Ages, they try to skip from Rome to the Crusades.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 09:45 AM
Sep 2013

People have problems with the Dark Ages, it is so unlike the Roman and Greek World AND the post Renaissance world of today. The biggest change was that the Cities declined rapidly after the Vandals took Carthage in about 450 AD and trade in the Mediterranean sea ended (and did not resume after the Eastern Roman Empire re-took Carthage in the 520s and held its almost to 700 AD).

In many ways, the Dark Ages were more pro-99% and less pro 1% then had been Rome and is the situation today. Some problems we have today understanding the Dark Ages:

1. People in motion, not just armies but whole tribes moving all over Europe, during the Migration period of 400-800, then by individuals till that was crack down on in the High Middle Ages after 1000 AD,

2. What we called "Nationality" did not exist, You were a Roman Citizen and a Christian OR you were a member of a Barbarian Tribe and a Christian was the norm. You often were a Roman Citizen subject to a Barbarian ruler, both of whom were Christians and you own duties to both your local Roman or Tribal leader AND to whatever Barbarian lord controlled your area.

3. People move about almost to a modern level, but then only on foot, Some of this was the movement of the Barbarian Tribes, but some of this was peasants moving to a better place to live (and often Peasants in full Scale Revolt., especially in the last years of the Western Roman Empire).

4. People had a voice in who their leaders were, and most kings and local leaders were elected by the other members of their tribe or group.

5. Woman had rights (Rights of Women reached their height in the Dark Ages, then declined as society embraced the Renaissance). This included the right to marry without a dowry, the right to refuse to marry if your father told you to, and the right to inherit from their father equal to their brothers in all things except land (Land ownership was tied in with Military duty, thus wives who did inherit from their Father had to marry, so their husband could perform that Military Duty or enter a convent from where they still controlled their land).

6. People had a voice in their local Government, i.e. Village Level and with the local Chieftain, such meetings were done all the time. Most disputes were handled by these local councils.

7. Most advances in Technology were things that helped the peasants, it was a period of greatest improvement in the lives of the 99% until the 19th century and the Industrial Revolution kicked in full steam, these improvements include the following:

a. The Horse Collar
b. The Horse Shoe
c. Hay
d. Stirrups
e. The Wooden tree for Saddles
f. The spread of the Iron Plow
g. The spread of Ball Bearings and they use in wagons
f. The Water Wheel reached Western Europe.
h. Candles

Now, some of these items existed in Roman days, but we have no record of them being used by the Peasants of the time period (and we have found a lot of Horses, Saddles, Farm Equipment, wagons etc to know what the peasants had access to) Example of this are as follows:

a. Ball Bearings (no use on Wagons in Roman Days, but the norm by the end of the Dark Ages, but Ball Bearings are seen in some high end devices for the 1% as early as the First Century so the concept was known),

b. The Heavy Iron Plow some how made it from Asia Minor to the Slavs before 500, who then used it to spread their farming technology throughout Europe, even introducing the Heavy Iron Plow Into England.
c. The Water Wheel, known in the Middle East by the time of Alexander the Great, only starts to be seen in Western Europe as the Roman Empire breaks up and we enter the Dark Ages.

d. Saddles were known to the Late Roman Empire (from about 200 AD onward, but the Romans used Bronze plates to give their Saddles form, the Wooden Tree replaced these plates in the Dark Ages.

e. Candles, another Chinese invention of about 200 BC that reached Europe during the Dark Ages, but its adoption may be related to the ending of East-West Trade. Candles came to replace Olive Oil used in lamps. Olive Oil was produced in areas that were cut off from trade with Western Europe after the Vandals took Carthage in 451 AD, and cut off from Constantinople when the olive producing areas of the Ancient World, Syria and the surrounding area, came under Moslem Rule.

As you can see a lot of what use to be obtained by trade during the time of the Roman Empire, had to be produced locally during the Dark Ages, thus what could be produced locally replaced what use to be obtained by trade. Inferior Pottery replaced the much higher grade pottery produced in mass production facilities during the Roman Empire (While the quality of Jewelry remained about the same, for Jewelry was always something produced locally), Candles, which could be produced locally, replaced Olive Oil, Butter, another product that could be produced locally, also replaced Olive Oil for cooking. This reduced the living standards of the local 1%, but had beneficial affect on the 99% who had always used locally produced items for they were cheaper (and the reduction in trade strengthen the local makers, who tended to be with the 99% for we are talking about one man occupations, they bargaining power as to the 1% improved).

I can go on and on, but the Dark Ages are only dark if you look to how the 1% lived, the other 99% saw a clear improvement in their standard of living. The mass kill offs tended to be tied in with efforts of the Roman Elite to reestablish themselves or with various plaques that hit (and the Plagues seems to be tied in with the Climate change of the time period, it is now called the Dark Ages Cold Period, they tended to hit at the start of a new reduction in world wide temperatures, which also were the time periods of the mass movement of people into the Roman Empire or what had been the Roman Empire).

Paper on Tempertures over the last 2000 years:
http://www.agbjarn.blog.is/users/fa/agbjarn/files/ljungquist-temp-reconstruction-2000-years.pdf

Side note: While most Cities either cease to exist or became small, the Capital of the Eastern Roman Empire expanded. During the Dark Ages, Constantinople was the largest city in the world, maybe even becoming bigger then Rome had been during its height (Rome was still the largest city in the World when the Vandals took it in 460 AD, but during the Italian wars of the 530s its population had dropped to Zero, in the early 400s Constantinople was still a small city, but by the 500s it replaced Rome as the World's largest City, when this happened is hard to say today).

We know Constantinople was the largest city in the World in 1204 when it was taken by the Fourth Crusades, for even the Arabs conceded it was larger then Baghdad at that time period. We know Baghdad was the largest city in the World in 1258 when the Mongols took it for the Mongols commented it was larger then the Cities they had taken in China or elsewhere.

aquart

(69,014 posts)
24. People ignore it because there is so little believable history from it. Records just sucked.
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 10:09 AM
Sep 2013

Also the breakdown of central power meant what records there were were constantly being destroyed. You give short shrift to hunger as a driving force in the population shifts. There are stories, if you choose to believe them, of whole villages so desperately, hopelessly hungry the residents joined hands and jumped off a cliff.

You also have the oddest view of feudalism I ever read.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
28. I have tried to understand Feudalism, something that has been under attack for at least 600 years
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 12:48 PM
Sep 2013

Last edited Thu Sep 12, 2013, 02:21 PM - Edit history (1)

Another factor is European Feudalism is characterized by tying land ownership with military duty during a time period of little cash. Other time periods have been called "Feudal" but except for the former Roman Empire and later Germany and Scandinavia these do not meet that definition of Feudalism (and at least one author wanted to abolish the term, for no uniform definition of it has ever been agreed to and today is used to describe any economic system the author who uses the term dislikes).

As to the last 600 years, you have to accept that the 1% has hated Feudalism for that length of time for it restricted what they could do to the peasants (and made requirements of the 1% to those peasants). If you read the reports of the 1600s, 1700s and even 1800s, it is NOT the peasants who wanted to be free of Feudal duties, but the owner of the estates they were on. In fact most peasants wanted to increase their rights to be on the land, not leave the land (i.e. go from a "Weak" hold on the land to a "Strong" hold on the land).

The difference between a "Strong" hold on the land and a "Weak" hold on the land is important (and best seen in Poland the Prussia and that part of Europe in the 1700s and 1800s). A peasant with a "Strong" hold on the land had the right to live and keep the proceeds from a set amount of acreage in exchange for maintaining stock used for plowing and could NOT be moved about on the Estate. Peasants with a "Weak" hold on the land, generally laborers without horses or oxen, the owner of the estate only had to permit them use of a little piece of the property for their own use and could be move about on the estate,

In Poland and Prussia during the 1700s and 1800s, a period where we have records of, the peasants did NOT to be "freed" but move from having a "Weak" hold to a "Strong" hold. The 1% who owned these estate wanted to convert all of them to Freeman so they could hire (and fire) them as needed. Given Feudalism was tied in with land ownership and the rights of the peasants to those same lands Feudalism was attacked as interfering with best use of the land by its owners.

Now, England had technically abolished serfdom in the 1300s, but as part of the policy of England to convert its farmlands to much more profitable sheep. Trade in the High Middle ages was wool from England and Spain went to Flanders where it was spun into yard (At the end of the Hundred Year war, most spinning had moved to the Netherlands), then shipped back. Given the King's main source of Income was the tax on the wool going to Flanders and the Yard coming back from Flanders, the real reason for the Hundred Year War (and why it finally ended when the mills had moved to the Netherlands) was to protect these spinners and thus the income of the King Of England.

Now, the peasants of England had technically been "Freed" in the 1300s, but as late as the 1700s, peasants who worked for landlords had to have written permission of such landlords to leave their area even to go visit someone. No pass from your landlord, meant you were breaking the law and had to face trial, a trial held by your landlord. In many ways what England had done in the 1300s was to abolish what others have called a "Strong" hold on the land, but maintain the "Weak" hold on the land in all but name (And only as to restrictions on the peasants, not the duty of the Owner of the Estate). The Agricultural revolution in the 1700s, and the growth of the Cities of England, where run a way peasants could disappear, finally killed off these remains of the "Weak" Hold on the land in England but it survived in Eastern Europe till well into the 1800s (and in England you had what was called "Copyhold", grants of ownership from the owner of the Estate, these were treated as "Freedholds" today but as late as the 1800s it was the Estate Owner that judge disputes as to who owned the Copyhold and what that Copyhold was, i.e, NOT the KIng nor the King's Courts).

A similar situation developed in Russia with its abolishment of Serfdom in 1861, such "freed" peasants still had to have the permission of the owner of the land they were on to move out of the area. Worse, the freed serfs had to agree to pay for the land they were on anywhere from 20-90% over the value of the land. The peasants were know to revolt before abolishment of Serfdom and this only increased afterward by the harsh terms set up in the act of abolishment. In many ways the checks on the abuse of the peasants died with serfdom, and was one of the leading causes of the Revolutions of 1917 (and the Collectivization was more a return to Serfdomism then anything else and again to get grain to trade NOT for military duty).

Notice, the harshness of Russian serfdom was tied in with trade, the desire to export grain (the Ukrainian famine of the 1930s and the anti-Kulak movement of the same time period, also appears to be related to wanting to export grain). During the Dark Ages, trade had died out and thus those extremes are not seen (they re-appear in the period after the Black Death hit Europe, as trade had increased by then and wheat was the main object traded, the increase in Russian and Polish Serfdom is thus tied in with trade not military service). Dark Age Feudalism is tied in with Military Service NOT trade, thus its tendency to look and act like officer and enlisted ranks not Owner and Slave unlike post Serfdom peasants in England AND 1100 t 1861 Serfdom in Russia, which was NEVER tied in with Military service..

As to your case of mass starvation and jumping off a cliff, that is NOT a product of Serfdom or Feudalism but (if true) a product of a series of bad harvests. You hear stories of that type from India and China (Neither had the type of Feudalism that occurred in Europe during the Dark Ages) during periods of bad harvests. In many ways it proves nothing except that times were hard, but times were even harder at peasants in the last 300 years of the Roman Empire.

While, the Dark Ages were NOT a good time for the 99%, it was a better time then the Roman Empire and the Renaissance for the 99 %, except for North America, the world as a whole prior to 1850 was a bad place to be a member of the 99%. We have only matched the rights peasants had in the dark ages since 1900 (Through we have much better technology, food, housing and other material items prior to 1900 but not by much over what peasants had in the Dark Ages). The real improvement has been since 1900 as the improvements work themselves down to what would have been Peasants in the dark ages (the 99%).

My point is Dark Age Feudalism was NOT the rough suppression of peasants it is often called. IT was the best time period to be a member of the 99% till 1900 in much of the world (post 1700 in North America, unless you were a Native American). It was not up to the standards of today, but it was better then any other time period when it came to rights of the peasants.

hunter

(38,317 posts)
37. What's your view of feudalism?
Thu Sep 12, 2013, 03:34 PM
Sep 2013

I think the biological/anthropological view is probably closer to the truth than the classical historical view.

Records and documentation were for the 1%. Those scribes who were not "one-percenters" were writing to please their Lords and Masters and Patrons. The "one-percenters" were writing to please themselves. Just another "O" in the diary of Samuel Pepys.

The "history" of Europe, the one we learn in schools, is largely propaganda. The elites live in one world and everyone else has been overlooked.

I see it in my own family. Our casual genealogy is a fabrication. My surname is supposedly something Scots Presbyterian. My great aunt even got it all mapped out back to the Domesday Book during the eugenics fad of the 'twenties (very nice how that all works out for white protestants, isn't it?) and went so far as to live that lie. My grandfather knew different, that this myth of respectability began when some anonymous Catholic guy jumped ship in San Francisco, probably because he was tired of being flogged for insubordination. New name, new world. Undocumented immigrant. It helps to be a quick study. Give 'em what they want.

A similar thing happened in my mom's family. One of her ancestors was a mail order bride from Europe to the new Mormon settlement in Salt Lake City. Her fabricated genealogy impressed the rubes. But she didn't like sharing a husband so she ran off with a U.S. government surveyor. Her descendant were pretty wild too. One of them had an affair with a Mormon church official and had a kid. Our family knows that, but it's not in the records. So far as the Mormons are concerned she had a miraculous 11 month pregnancy while her husband was away on business on the East Coast. So my mom's surname isn't legit either.

The actual biological dad was a scoundrel himself. He claimed to be White Anglo Saxon. Please... he would have been at home in any photo of IRA members.



It got stranger when my crazy grandma died. She left detailed instructions about the way she wanted to be buried. The Funeral Director asked, somewhat befuddled, "She's Jewish?"

Not that we knew.



So far as I can tell my mom's family motto is just tell 'em you're a Christian so they don't pester you." Pagan, European Jew, Christian, Scandinavian... something. They lived in the wilderness. They never went to church or temple. They were all very good at being where the fighting was not. My mom's dad went so far as to be a pacifist during World War Two. They put him to work building Liberty and Victory ships. His other option would have been jail. My dad's dad was an Army Air Force officer who wanted to fly planes but they decided he was too valuable as a "fix-it" man to get shot at. Dashing young officer who got people deemed essential to the war effort out of jail.

Anyways, I think most of us carry the genes of people who did their very best to avoid becoming part of the historical narrative. Those unnoticed "Dark Age" feudal people were living their lives unnoticed, even making ball bearings, water wheel mills, and iron plows, all doing their best not to become part of the historical narrative.

Becoming part of the historical narrative is usually a bad thing.

 

happyslug

(14,779 posts)
42. That is one of the reason you often have to read between the lines
Fri Sep 13, 2013, 06:51 PM
Sep 2013

One of my ancestors, left Austria, he had a ship to catch on a fast horse rather then stay around for the Shooting party everyone else had planned for him (Bribing the Guards help).

Another ancestor told the story that he was off the coast of Maryland and his ship sunk, and he and his brother in law were the only ones left for they had been sleeping. He and his brother inl aw then took a door off a hatch and used that to get to shore. There they were on the beach between Annapolis and Baltimore, so where did they go to report this story? Yes Hagerstown, 100 times further then either city and in the Mountains of Maryland.

Now, this same ancestor was NOT in the US at the time of the American Revolution but did win a land grant for showing up to defend Baltimore during the War of 1812. He was a captain of his Militia unit. That he was NOT in the US in 1775 but in the US in 1812, is the first indication of a problem with this story. While immigration to the US did not ever come to a complete stop, for all practical purposes it ended in 1774 when Britain passed its "Intolerable Acts" and forced America to war. The American Revolution (1775-1783) was followed by the Wars of the French Revolution (1789-1815), thus till the 1820s it was almost impossible to immigrant to the US (it took some time for immigration to re-start, through the Scots seems to be a constant source of Immigrants during the 1789-1812 period).

Thus you did have some Immigration, but it was rare compared to earlier and later time periods. Most Germans before 1774 immigrated from north west Germany, it is only after 1848 do you get substantial numbers of Germans from elsewhere in Germany (thus these older Germans are overwhelmingly Lutheran). My family, at that time, is believed to have been Catholic (we have gone in and out of the Catholic Church ever since).

Now, I have discussed the above with family members. My family's name is from the Alsace province of France, then and now a German speaking part of France. My Ancestor "Brother in law" was French. I found out one of the FRENCH ARMY units at Yorktown was a German Speaking unit out of Alsace. It members were suppose to be all Catholics. I hate to say this, and this is all speculation, is that I suspect my ancestor fought at Yorktown, talked to the Germans (who made up the majority of Washington's Army) and decided it was a good place to desert to. Now, desertion was NOT liked by the French, and Washington wanted to do all he could to keep the French happy, thus any US group that picked up a French Deserter would quickly turn them over to the French.

Now, the above is the background. I suspect my ancestor determined the best place to desert was after they were on a ship. That French unit shipped out of Baltimore. He and his brother in law, then took a door off a hatch in the Ship, loaded up with their personal belongings and pushed it silently off the ship. Taking a boat would alert the crew that someone had deserted, taking a door off a hatch (and may be the room to store alcohol) would imply that someone wanted something in that Hatch. By the time the Ship crew and Officers of the Army unit realized what happened, my ancestor was long on his way to Hagerstown. He dare NOT go to Baltimore or Annapolis for in either place he would be arrested and turned over to the French. In Hagerstown, he could melt into an already existing German Population. BY the time of the War of 1812, he had more military training then anyone else, so he was elected the unit's Captain and won his land grant (No one asked about how he left the French Army in 1781 in 1812).

It is all speculation, but it fits the facts that I know. That my ancestor was left alone on a sinking ship was a good enough lie for people who did not want to find out that it was a lie (and was bad enough for people to know it was a lie and thus do NOT dig to deep).

This is the type of reading between the lines one needs to understand history. I often give the example of interbreeding between Native Americans and Whites. Such interbreeding is report if the couple lived in a Native American Village, for such reports were wanted by the people back in the Colonial Capital on who to contact in that village. On the other hand, if a Native American entered white Society he was ignored UNLESS there was some reason to mention him or her.

We have to remember, in most society the number of females out number males by rarely by more then 1%. In Colonial America that could be as high as 10%. Given women were in short supply, they had the option of picking a mate wealthier then their family (and apparently did), thus what about the poor white males?

On the other hand, even in Colonial Times, one of the characteristics of Native American Tribe was that women survive disease more then males, thus their were known to have more women then men.

Now, in all reports white men living in white Society never married Native American Women, but then we have all types of reports of Half breeds living among whites (and reports of criminals with the description "Half Breed" as if that was descriptive). We have reports of old Native Americans living with White Families, much like an aged Grandfather would (but no one acknowledge him as an ancestor).

The answer? There was interbreeding, many a Native America Women left her tribe and married into a white male who wanted to stay in white society. If one of their children turned criminal we get a report of some "Half Breed" criminal for that was the best way to describe the criminal, and everyone knew people who were "half breed" to know what that description meant. Thus no reports of any half breeds in white Society UNLESS they did something criminal (and would describe the almost just stating a fact about a leader among the Native Americans who was white or half white).

As to the older Native Americans, it was someone's grandfather (or grandmother) and no one was going to ask anybody about.

Now, we do have reports of mixing of the "Races" before the Bacon's rebellion of 1670s. This included not only whites with Native Americans, but African Americans with whites. In fact one author points out that the concept of a "White Race" came out of the Bacon's Rebellion. You do NOT see the term prior to that Rebellion, but afterward you see it over and over again. In that rebellion, Whites and Blacks joined together to protest their treatment by the Colonial Government of Virginia. Some Native America joined in with them (Through the thrust was a demand for lands reserved to the Native Americans, but by 1676 the leadership of the Native Americans of that tribe had so interbreed with the white leadership of Virginia they were almost the same people).

Anyway, the Native Americans leadership was able to keep their lower class members loyal by emphasis that they were not white (even as most of the Native American Leadership of that Tribe had white blood in them by then). This weakened the rebellion and gave an edge to the Colonial Government. Jamestown was burned down, but the rebellion was suppressed. The Colonial Government then seems to have adopted a policy of pushing racism to divide the poor whites from the African American Slave Population AND from the Native American population, thus preventing whites and blacks from joining together against the 1% of Colonial Virginia:


http://clogic.eserver.org/1-2/allen.html
http://www.counterpunch.org/2013/05/21/the-invention-of-the-white-race/
http://www.amazon.com/The-Invention-White-Race-Volume/dp/1844677699


Back to "Mixing of the Races"

We know the people on the Frontier interacted with Native Americas. They often wore the same type of clothing (Hunting Shirts and leggings), they planted the same crop (Corn, beans and Pumpkins) and were treated the same by people on the Coast (George Washington called the people on the Frontier "White Indians" for example). These were the poor, moved to the Frontier for the land was free. When the land became "White" by some treaty, these frontiersmen found themselves on somebodies else's property and either had to pay for it or leave (Virginia in the 1700s had adopted a rule that the real owner of the property had to pay for any "improvements" which meant mostly how much land was cleared, but Washington's agents in Western Pennsylvania were known NOT to accept such "Improvements" as "Improvements" and also demanded top dollar for the property (This treatment by George Washington was a contributory reason for the amount of opposition to the Federal Government during the Whiskey Rebellion).

Now, after the war of 1812, the population difference between Whites and Native Americans had become so huge that you stop seeing "Half Breeds" and those people who had native American blood in them did they best to cover it up. I had a ancestor who married a Native American but decided it was better to live among his people in the Mountains of Maryland then where he had meet her (in Ohio). The reason was simple, among his relatives they had to accept her for she was his wife, among strangers he had no similar ability to "force" them to accept her (prior to Social Security, your old age safety net was your younger relatives, thus older people did not offend their children to much by their choice of spouse, for often that is the woman who will take care of them in their old age).

When you read about the Boars of South African (The Decedents of the Dutch who settled in South Africa), it is believed about 5% of their ancestors were Black South Africans. This shows up every so often when a black child is born to an Afrikaner family. The same with whites in the US, I suspect 5-10 % of white Gene pool of families who have been here since 1800 is Native American Genes. Hard to trace today, for most of their ancestors made an effort to hide it (And do not go by US Census records, Thomas Jefferson's African American slave that many claim to be his "wife", the evidence is not conclusive thus my hedging, when she became free report herself as "White" on US Census reports).

I bring up records for the US Census reports are a good place to look, but remember the people filling them out knew no one will double check them so if they had a good reason to lie (and cover up Native American or African America Ancestry was a good reason at that time), they would lie. I have checked the Census reports of my Grandfather and in three Census he reports three different counties and states he was born in. I do not trust ANY of these census reports.

The same Grandfather was reported to have changed the dates of Birth of relatives in the family bible, the only report of their births. The reason for the change was to make them eligible for Social Security, born to early you were not entitled to Social Security, remember the first Social Security Check was issued in 1938, 65 years before was 1873, thus if born before 1873 you were NOT entitled to Social Security, but if born after that date AND paid into it, you were. Most states did not keep birth records dates in the 1870s so Social Security would accept entries in Family Bibles as valid. Just a comment to remember when reading records, if people had a good reason to lie, they would, but of they had no reason to lie, the records can generally be trusted.

Just a comment, you often have to read between the lines, not only what people did report and why and also what they did NOT report and why. To many people take what is written as valid, without taking the time to understand WHY it was Written. Why something was written can say more then what was actually written and you have to remember that about records from the past.

HereSince1628

(36,063 posts)
10. I only wish to point out a failing in popular English: a jigsaw IS NOT a jigsaw puzzle
Tue Sep 10, 2013, 05:53 PM
Sep 2013

I appreciate that in some (unkown to me) English speaking culture that may not be precisely true.

But I challenge all comers to show me that in THAT culture the phrase "jigsaw puzzle" would not be understood.

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