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Edited on Thu Jan-15-09 06:30 AM by varkam
The state will have to show a few different things, among them that the act was intentional, deliberate, and pre-meditated (elements of a murder charge) and in addition that the act was both conscious and volitional (elements of a crime in general). They will also have to show cause - that the actions resulted in the prohibited result (which is a no-brainer in this case), harm (again, a no-brainer), and mens rea - which is the required mental component of a crime.
The mens rea for murder can either be intentional, but if the state follows the Model Penal Code, acting knowingly can satisfy the intentional mens rea. Acting knowingly is basically doing something that, while it is not your explicit desire to bring about the intended result, you do it while knowing that there is a practical certainty that the harm will be brought about through your actions.
Depending on the test used for intentional, deliberate, and pre-meditated (i.e. Schrader, Morrin), he might not have had enough time to form those required components. The tests range from basically the twinkle of an eye to the time required for a person in the defendant's position to take a second look at their actions.
All that being said, one of the explanations that I have heard is that the officer believed he was reaching for his taser. I'm not sure how convincing that argument is, because I would assume that the service weapon and the taser are different (i.e. have a different feel, different mechanisms for disengaging the safety, etc) and so a reasonable person in the officer's situation would have realized that he was holding a gun, not a taser.
It's hard to say without knowing all the facts, but my first inclination would be that a murder charge would stick. That being said, prosecutors tend to over-charge (i.e. charge people with crimes that they might have trouble proving at trial) as a means of providing an incentive for the defendant to enter into a plea agreement. In addition, upwards of 90% of all cases end in a plea agreement - so the DAs office might be willing to offer the defendant in this case Murder 2 or voluntary manslaughter (depending on the statute) in exchange for a guilty plea. Especially so since the defendant in this case is a cop (that is, unless the DA is dealing with problems of police brutality and it's an election year - in which case they'll railroad him).
That's just how I see it, anyway.
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