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A caller on C-span this morning

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kimmerspixelated Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-11-08 03:40 PM
Original message
A caller on C-span this morning
commented on something he'd read in a book stating that way back when-Henry Kissinger made a deal with the Persian area to only trade oil with them.

#1. Does anyone know if that is true?

#2. If true, what did we get in return?

#3. If true, why would we have ever made such a deal as this? What's really going on?
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gullwing300 Donating Member (204 posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-11-08 03:41 PM
Response to Original message
1. Huh?
Don't understand the question.
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MrCoffee Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-11-08 03:42 PM
Response to Original message
2. That guy was so crazy they cut away...
Edited on Wed Jun-11-08 03:45 PM by MrCoffee
He was a nutbar. He read it in a book the aliens from the planet Zebulon Prime gave him.
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On the Road Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-11-08 03:43 PM
Response to Original message
3. It is Not True That
the US ever relied on Iran as a sole supplier. The US has been deeply involved with the Saudis long before Kissinger came on the scene.

It is more likely that Iran agreed to sell 100% of its oil exports to the US. That would have been under our ally the Shah. The benefit of that would be assuring a stable supply.
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Make7 Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Wed Jun-11-08 04:35 PM
Response to Original message
4. He may have been talking about Lindsey Williams' work.
I'll preface this by saying that I don't believe much of what Mr. Williams says is accurate.

This is his take on the "Kissinger deals" with the oil producing countries:

    The Non-Energy Crisis by Lindsey Williams  (start at 32:40)


-Make7
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