Why have governments historically given food to the poor?

[underpants]

Since the Romans (possibly before) except in unique situations governments have made food available to the poorest of the poor, why?

[napoleon_in_rags]

1. complex poll.

I clicked one too soon, I meant to click at the end. They are all viable reasons.

[underpants]

2. and the language that he used

nice name

Welcome to DU :hi:" if'n I haven't before

When you got nothing, you got nothing to lose <---- is the answer to the poll

[lumberjack_jeff]

6. Apropos. n/t

[Wizard777]

3. Other: To provide for basic Human Rights. Like the right to life.

[underpants]

4. Forgot that one

Stupid brain...ooh LUNCHTIME!!!

[Wizard777]

8. Oooooh, you forgot what the doorman said, FEED YOUR HEAD!

:hippie: That's another application of that statement. The brain works much better with food than without. We tend to take food for granted here in America because we're surrounded by it. Just look at all teh food outlets we have. So enjoy your lunch and don't forget to thank God that you have one. If you are so inclined to believe.

[salvorhardin]

5. In the case of the Romans

In the case of the Romans, Julian ordered the establishment of hospices, along with free wine and wheat, because he hated Christians and he was trying to revive the pagan practices.

[lumberjack_jeff]

7. The only choice which is true for all governments is 1. n/t

[Marrah_G]

9. Human compassion?

[The2ndWheel]

10. Choices 1-7

Not necessarily in that order though.