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Does the presidential pardon extend to murder?

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Cyrano Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 06:48 AM
Original message
Does the presidential pardon extend to murder?
A statute of limitations applies to virtually all crimes except murder. Kill someone, and even if you think you've gotten away with it, you will be hunted for the rest of your life.

Thus, my question is, can the president issue a pardon to a murderer?

It's a pretty solid bet that before King George leaves office, he will pardon Cheney, Rumsfeld, Rove and others for any crimes they may have committed.

What I'm getting at here is that most people on DU would agree that Bush, Cheney and Rumsfeld have blood on their hands as concerns Iraq and the chain of torture chambers they've built in various countries. They are murderers.

Can murderers be pardoned, and if so, are those pardons irrevocable?
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William769 Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 06:49 AM
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1. A President can pardon anybody for any reason, even murder
Once it's a done deal, it cannot be changed.
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maine_raptor Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 06:54 AM
Response to Reply #1
2. And not only that
he can do so before conviction or even indictment for any crimes (known or unknown) in the past.
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hlthe2b Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 06:58 AM
Response to Reply #1
3. He can only pardon for crimes in US courts...
While the US is not a signatory on the World Court for Crimes Against Humanity, I would guess there could be ambiguity there......? :shrug:
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William769 Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 07:00 AM
Response to Reply #3
4. I figured that was understood.
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maine_raptor Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 07:01 AM
Response to Reply #3
5. As far as I know
he powers extend only to the US. It is, after all, a power given to him by the US Constitution.
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Cyrano Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 07:10 AM
Response to Original message
6. Until Nuremberg, there was no such thing as "Crimes against humanity."
Yet, aside from die hard freepers and fundies, few in the world would disagree that Bush, Cheney, Rumsfeld (not to mention Henry Kissinger) have committed crimes against humanity.

Did Nuremberg set a precedent that could override even our constitution? Or is that something that would have to be enforced by a country or countries other than our own?
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maine_raptor Donating Member (1000+ posts) Send PM | Profile | Ignore Mon Jun-12-06 07:17 AM
Response to Reply #6
7. Remember how Nuremberg came about.
To put it plainly, it was a judgment (well deserved) by the victors.

In order to have a true "Nuremberg Trial" here, the US would have to be invaded, taken over, and it's form of government (Constitution) abolished with our land being occupied by foreign troops.

While the US ascribes to the principals espoused by Nuremberg, those principals themselves do not overrule the Constitution.

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