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If you are incarcerated for 30 days for drunk driving, you are denied certain exercises of your right to liberty during that time.
Your right to liberty has NOT been taken away from you.
You have to be released at the end of the 30 days. If your RIGHT to liberty had been taken away from you, you could just be kept there.
So what you are saying is that a temporary restriction on rights is "denial" of exercising rights, while a permanent restriction on rights is "taking away" of rights.
If so, in the case of people who have lost their right to keep and bear arms due to being convicted of domestic abuse, since it is permanent, their right has been taken away, not denied.
And no, that isn't answered by saying that your right to liberty is restored at the end of the 30 days. That's just nonsense.
You are quibbling over semantics. Whether my right to liberty was taken away or denied for 30 days the effect is the same.
If your ass is forced to sit in jail for 30 days, whether you lost your right, were denied your ability to exercise your right, or loaned your right to a pink elephant, the bottom line is, for the duration of time your government has specified, you don't have that right.
And that is where there is a problem with life-long blanket prohibitions, and they do seem to run over into the realm of civil death. And thus also why they are completely impermissible and incoherent in societies that recognize rights.
But you already said:
The denial, in my own humble opinion, is sufficiently specific to pass constitutional scrutiny. It is clearly related to the goal -- to reduce "domestic violence" (a concept in need of a new name), not overbroad, not excessive, etc.
Since people who have been convicted of domestic violence crimes will lose their right to keep and bear arms permanently, by your own definition they have had their right taken away and this would be in the realm of civil death.
So which is it? Is such a measure "impermissible and incoherent" or is it "sufficiently specific to pass constitutional scrutiny"?
I'm certainly on board with firearms possession being a "civil right". It is a right acquired by virtue of membership in a particular society, not by virtue of being a human being. Like voting, the right to enter and leave the country, etc. Removal of that right could then indeed be considered to be a component of civil death, along with the right to vote, the right to contract, and such like.
I don't think I understand the concept of a "civil" right vs. other kinds of rights. To my mind, rights are things we have by virtue of being free human beings. What makes them civil is the fact that we have codified them into a civil work of law. But I'm not a lawyer so I don't know the actual definitions here.
We have rights enumerated (not granted) by our Constitution, and firearm ownership is one of those rights. As such, I would say it is a right you have by virtue of being a human being. Like being able to freely speak your mind, we freely have the right to own the tools to defend ourselves. Whether these are "civil" rights or not I don't know. They are codified by law that only applies in our society - does this make them "civil" rights? Again, I don't know.
Well, there's a point there. The way in which it is done where I'm at -- based on an individual assessment of a firearms licence applicant -- is not the same. I favour individual assessment. It's hard to see what factors might remove someone convicted of "domestic violence" from the existing blanket prohibition, but there could be. The individual would still be entitled to an assessment, and there would then be a denial of the exercise a right, not the removal of a right, if that were the result. The individual could always reapply to exercise the right on the usual conditions, e.g. obtaining a licence.
I would assume that once you've been assessed once and found unfit to own firearms that this assessment would never change? For example, if you've been convicted of domestic violence you would never be found fit to own firearms? In which case we are talking about a permanent denial of rights, which is effectively the removal of the right.
No, not otherwise than on an individual assessment. And not the "denial of rights" -- the denial of the exercise of rights. And only some rights, only based on that assessment and a determination that there is justification for denying the exercise of the right in the individual case. Not, for instance, the right to vote.
It sounded to me like you were saying you were OK with the denial of exercising the right to keep and bear arms for people convicted of domestic violence. Are you saying you are not OK with the denial of exercising the right to keep and bear arms for people convicted of domestic violence?
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