was that as the Dem share increased more Dems seats were won in the house. And that that showed in the majority of elections excepting the elections from 1994-2004 when the trend of thirty+ years was skewed, but it still held that as Dem share of the generic poll increased so did the number of Dem house wins.
So what happened? No one even mentions fraud except for the one comment. And there is your division, and why the case has to be made for fraud in this election. I guess you just can't see that the fraud effected the vote. I can. Maybe I am smarter?
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