General Discussion
In reply to the discussion: Amendment 2 Blues [View all]H2O Man
(73,510 posts)You ask a clear question.
My answer, intended in all sincerity, is that it doesn't matter if one thinks it was pre-existing or not. Hence, I did not include anything about that tangent in the OP. What does matter is that Amendment 2 is part of our Constitution, and that there is definite Constitutional Law that -- for better or for worse -- documents how the USSC has interpreted it.
Because I believe that you asked this question in a serious, sincere manner, and my answer almost certainly isn't what you were looking for, let me ask you what you think? I'd say that the "right" to self-defense (including defending one's family etc) is a human right, which clearly has been recognized by cultures long before the USA came into existence. It's a right that existed well before western society learned about gun powder. One would be safe in assuming that the majority of those who have attempted to deny others this right, are those who were intent upon exploiting them ....this clearly being the case, for instance, when England sought to force the people of Boston to turn overtheir weapons.